The questions most likely to appear on the October 24 midterm, each with how to answer it and a model answer, built around Keith's real old midterms and review deck.
Exam: Sat Oct 24, 5:00 PM, 2 hours (Keith's note says Oct 25, so confirm)
Format: 7 short answers + 1 multiple choice, IRAC
Scope: All torts + the 7 elements of a contract
Not on it: Impeachment, writing, interpretation (final exam only)
Aids: Confirm: syllabus allows one 8.5 × 11 sheet
96 tagged questions: 59 very likely · 33 likely · 4 possible · 29 more marked final exam only
About the tags. Nobody outside the exam team knows the real questions. Very likely, Likely and Possible rank each question by how heavily the course stresses that skill, so learn the method behind each answer rather than the numbers. Questions tagged Final exam only cover impeachment of contracts, writing and interpretation, which Keith said are not on the midterm; they are kept for the final and left out of your progress count.
Start here: the exam, the IRAC method and how to use this guide
The midterm is Saturday October 24, 2026 at 5:00 PM (room to be announced), according to the review deck Keith sent on October 6, which labels these details "subject to change". Keith's covering note calls the date "October 25th", so confirm it on MyLS or with Keith; this guide uses the deck because it gives the weekday, date and time together. The deck says the paper has 7 short answer questions and 1 multiple choice question, which is exactly the shape of the Winter 2026 midterm. You write by hand and answer in IRAC. Your course materials say you may bring one 8.5 × 11 sheet written on both sides, and the deck tells you to build your own cheat sheet, but the two old midterms differed (Fall 2023 was closed book and Winter 2026 was open book), so confirm the aids rule at the review class. Your instructor is Keith Masterman.
The scope, in Keith's words: the midterm covers all the material on torts and the seven elements of a contract, up to but not including impeachment of a contract. The seven elements are offer, acceptance, consideration, intention to create legal relations, capacity, legality and certainty of terms. So Topic 1 and every tort are in, and these are out: setting aside a contract (mistake, duress, undue influence, unconscionability), contracts in writing (the Statute of Frauds and part performance), contract interpretation, good faith and privity. Misrepresentation stays in because Keith lists it with the torts and the Winter 2026 midterm tested it. The first class after reading week (October 12 to 16) is a review session where Keith will give the answers to the old-exam questions in his deck. This replaces my earlier, wider reading of the scope.
Where the questions come from. Before October 6 there was no old midterm or review sheet on MyLS, so the earlier sections of this guide were built from the lectures, the three assigned case problems (Chapter 4 Case Problem 2 on negligence, Chapter 6 Case Problem 3 on formation, Chapter 9 Case Problem 5 on misrepresentation) and the topics Keith gives whole slide decks. On October 6 Keith sent the real thing: his review deck with five old-exam questions, the Fall 2023 midterm with suggested answers, and the Winter 2026 midterm with a model answer key. Those take priority over everything else in this guide, so they now sit first, in their own sections right after this one, with Keith's answers condensed into the IRAC format. The older sections still teach the rules and give you more practice, but their likelihood tags are my ranking from before I saw the old exams, so re-rank them with the table in the next section, which shows which topics Keith has actually tested. "Very likely" means the topic sits on several signals, "Likely" means one strong signal, "Possible" means in scope but lightly emphasised, and "Final exam only" means it is beyond the midterm scope Keith gave you.
How Keith wants answers written
His practice notes say they are not full answers because on an exam he expects "a full analysis of the question". The course skill is IRAC (also written IDAC or CRAC), and the exam is graded on whether you spot every issue, state the test with its case, apply it element by element with both sides, and finish with a conclusion that recommends a course of action to minimise legal risk.
Step
What to write
Stem you can copy
Issue
One sentence naming the legal question and the parties
"The issue is whether Ben can sue Cara in negligence for the injuries he suffered."
Rule
The test or elements, with the leading case or statute, defined in your own words
"Negligence requires (1) a duty of care, (2) breach of the standard of care, (3) causation, and (4) damages (Donoghue v Stevenson; Kamloops v Nielsen)."
Application
Take each element in turn, apply the facts, then give the other side's best argument and say who wins on that element
"Cara is likely to argue that … however, … so this element is probably met."
Conclusion
A short prediction plus a risk-management recommendation
"Ben will likely succeed on a balance of probabilities; Cara should settle and fix the hazard."
His writing tips, from the first-week slides: be point-first (state your conclusion early), use simple direct language, define each legal concept instead of assuming the reader knows it, read the question for more than one task, and give an example when one is asked for. If a question has several legal risks, treat each issue separately ("rinse, wash and repeat") and do not stop after the first one you find. Always name the party you are advising and use "likely" and "unlikely" rather than certainty, because, as the sample memo says, all legal cases have risk.
How to spot the issue from the facts
If the facts show …
Think …
Go to
someone hit, touched, threatened, locked in, accused or insulted on purpose
intentional tort and its defences
Intentional torts section
carelessness that hurt a person or property
negligence, then defences, then vicarious liability
Negligence section
a hurt visitor on a property, or a dangerous product
occupiers' liability or product liability
Occupiers and products section
a wrong statement that induced a deal
misrepresentation (tort and contract)
Misrepresentation sections
a director or professional with a personal interest
fiduciary duty, conflict of interest, corporate opportunity
Fiduciary section
an ad, a message, a reply, a deadline
offer, acceptance, revocation, postal rule
Formation 1
a promise with nothing given in return, a smaller payment, a promise after a sale
a deal promised orally for land, marriage, a guarantee, more than a year
Statute of Frauds, part performance
Writing section
a dispute over what a clause means
Sattva, contra proferentem, implied terms, good faith
Interpretation section
How the rest of this guide works
Each topic section has short-answer questions (definitions and tests, usually worth a few marks) and fact-pattern questions (the real core of the exam). Every question has three parts: the question, "How to answer" (the method and the elements to hit), and "Answer" (a model answer you can compare with your own). The questions in the three sections right after this one are real: they come from Keith's old midterms and review deck, and their answers follow Keith's own suggested answers. The fact patterns in the topic sections were written by me in the style of the course, not taken from an exam, so use them to practise the method. Near the end you will find several full multi-issue problems, a timed two-hour mock with a marking guide, and a blueprint for the cheat sheet. In the issue-spotting table above, the last three rows (setting aside, writing, interpretation) are final exam material, and the sections on setting aside a contract and on contracts in writing and interpretation, plus two of the full problems, are labelled "Final exam only": skip them until the midterm is over.
Two cautions about sources. First, a few well-known cases that appear in the textbook but are not named anywhere on MyLS (Cooper v Hobart, Mustapha v Culligan, Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball and Pharmaceutical Society v Boots) are marked "textbook" when they appear, so you can decide whether to cite them. Second, where the lecture notes and slides give slightly different wording for a test, the model answers use the wording from Keith's slides and notes, because that is the wording he will be looking for.
Keith's real exam materials: format, scope and marking (read this first)
On October 6 Keith sent three things: the review deck he will use in class (16 slides, with five old-exam questions and no answers), the Fall 2023 midterm with suggested answers, and the Winter 2026 midterm with a model answer key. They are the best evidence there is of what your midterm will look like, so they come first in this guide. Every question in them appears in the three sections after this one, with a model answer built from Keith's own suggested answers. Where an older model answer elsewhere in this guide differs from Keith's, follow Keith's.
The exam details side by side
Item
Fall 2026 midterm (Keith's deck)
Winter 2026 midterm
Fall 2023 midterm
Date and time
Saturday October 24, 2026, 5:00 PM, room to be announced ("subject to change")
Past exam
Past exam
Weight
Not stated in the deck; both old midterms were 35% of the final grade, so check your course outline
35%
35%
Length
2 hours (your course materials)
2 hours
2 hours
Aids
The deck says to make your own cheat sheet; your course materials say one 8.5 × 11 sheet, both sides
Open book
Closed book, no aids
Breakdown
7 short answer and 1 multiple choice
7 short answer and 1 multiple choice (Q6)
5 short answer and 2 multiple choice (Q2 and Q3)
Total marks
Not stated
53
42
Marks by question
Not stated
Q1 10, Q2 10, Q3 6, Q4 6, Q5 6, Q6 2, Q7 7, Q8 6
Q1 8, Q2 2, Q3 2, Q4 8, Q5 8, Q6 6, Q7 8
Setting
Not stated
One long story (the reality show The Traitors) cut into eight mini-problems, Ontario law
One long story (Oppenheimer and the Manhattan Project) cut into seven mini-problems, Ontario law
Standing instruction on the paper
Expect the same
"Discuss all counterarguments, any applicable defences, and the damages/remedy the client can expect"
The same sentence
Because the deck's 7 + 1 breakdown matches Winter 2026 exactly, treat Winter 2026 as the closest model of your paper: a 10-mark question is a full multi-issue problem, a 6-mark question is one claim with its defences, and the multiple choice is worth 2 marks. Plan for about two minutes per mark, which means roughly 22 minutes for a 10-mark question, 13 minutes for a 6-mark one and 3 minutes for the multiple choice, leaving a few minutes to read over your answers.
Keith's topic list, and where the old exams tested each item
The deck's three topic-review slides are the official scope list. This table puts every item next to the old questions that tested it, so you can see which parts Keith keeps coming back to. "W26" is Winter 2026, "F23" is Fall 2023 and "Deck" is the review deck.
Topic on Keith's list
Items listed
Where it has been tested
Priority
Defamation and its defences
Libel, slander, truth, privilege, responsible communication
F23 Q7, W26 Q5, Deck multiple choice 2
Top: on every old midterm
Negligence
Duty, standard, causation, damages
F23 Q4, W26 Q2, Deck Q3
Top: on every old midterm
Defences to negligence
Contributory negligence, voluntary assumption of risk
F23 Q4, W26 Q2, Deck Q3
Top
Misrepresentation and damages
Innocent, negligent, fraudulent; general, special, punitive damages; rescission
W26 Q7, Deck Q1; the three damage types are used in F23 Q4 and Q7
Not yet tested as a question, but every rule statement needs the standard of proof
Medium
The pattern: every old midterm has had a defamation problem, a negligence problem with contributory negligence, a capacity question and a contract-formation problem. If you can write those four perfectly under time, you have most of the paper.
What is not on this midterm
Keith's note says the midterm stops before impeachment of a contract, and warns that the old midterms include one or two questions on that material. He did not say which, so this is my reading, to be confirmed at the review class. Winter 2026 Q6 (the two cloaks, a mistake problem) is impeachment. Winter 2026 Q8 (a phone agreement to rent a castle) turns on the Statute of Frauds and part performance, which are the requirement of writing and come after impeachment. The arbitration-clause half of Winter 2026 Q1 (duress, unconscionability, notice of an exclusion clause) belongs to impeachment and terms. The second half of review deck Q2 (what if Bang Up had taken possession in February) is part performance again. In the sections below each of these is tagged "Final exam only", and the parts of the same questions that are in scope (the minor, certainty of terms, the collateral promise, contract formation) are marked so you can practise them. Fall 2023 is entirely in scope.
How Keith marks, from his deck and his answer keys
The deck's four-step method is the one this whole guide uses. Issue: a single sentence stating the question, which your conclusion then answers. Rule: a concise statement of the law and of the defences that apply, with no application to the facts. Application: a step-by-step analysis that applies the rule and then the defences to the facts. Conclusion: a concise statement of the likely outcome. Keith's slide on how to get a high grade lists five things: identify the right legal issue, explain the rule properly, apply it to the facts while exploring every counter-argument and defence so you can assess the legal risk, make the conclusion follow logically from your analysis, and do not raise irrelevant issues. He says he does not care which outcome you side with (just say what you think is likely), how long your answer is, or whether your wording is exact. On layout he suggests outlining first, using headings for Issue, Rule, Application and Conclusion, writing in paragraphs, and using lists only for things that need listing.
The answer keys add four marking rules that matter. First, marks follow the quality of the issue-spotting and analysis, not the final answer: the Fall 2023 key says that a student may find there was a contract, or no negligence, or no assault, and still earn full marks. Second, a reasonable alternative claim earns credit: the key accepts intentional infliction of mental distress instead of, or as well as, assault. Third, a short mention of a related idea (such as a class action) is accepted as a bonus. Fourth, every long answer deals with remedies: general damages, pecuniary (special) damages, punitive damages where the conduct is flagrant, rescission, or an account of profits, so finish each answer with one sentence on what the client can expect to receive.
How to use the real questions
Keith's own study advice on the deck is to complete former midterms on your own and critique your answers, to finish the practice exam, and to build your cheat sheet from the review sheet. Do Winter 2026 first because it is the closest model of your paper, then Fall 2023, then the review deck problems. Write each answer by hand against the clock (two minutes per mark), cover the answer, and only then open the answer and mark yourself against Keith's issues. The answers in the next three sections are condensed from Keith's own: the structure and the conclusions are his, and where I add something he did not say, the answer says so.
Past midterm: Winter 2026 with Keith's answer key (the closest model of your paper)
Winter 2026 is the newest old exam and the closest model of your paper: open book, 2 hours, 53 marks, seven short-answer problems and one multiple choice, all set in the reality show The Traitors under Ontario law. The eight questions below keep the real numbering and marks. Q6 and Q8, and the arbitration half of Q1, test material beyond this midterm (see the previous section), so they are tagged "Final exam only" or flagged inside the answer; the rest are squarely in scope. Each answer is condensed from Keith's answer key and uses his wording for the tests. Anything I added that the key does not say is marked as my addition. Keith's answers are what a marker will expect, so learn his tests word for word.
Q1Very likely10 marks
Studio Lambert Productions makes every contestant on its show The Traitors sign a participation agreement. Jake Morrison, 17, a last-minute replacement contestant, arrives at the castle five minutes before filming, is told he must sign to be on the show, and signs without reading it. The agreement sends all disputes to binding arbitration in London, England, waives any right to go to court, and makes Jake pay £15,000 (about CAD $25,000) in arbitration fees upfront whatever the outcome. It also promises a $10,000 base payment, with further payments "to be determined based on how far the contestant advances in the game". The producers also told Jake orally that he would receive "somewhere between $50,000 and $200,000" if he made the finale. Jake reaches the final five of 23 contestants and is offered $15,000 in total. He threatens to sue, and the company says the arbitration clause stops him from going to court. Advise Jake on the strength of his case.
How to answer
Three issues, in this order. (1) Is Jake bound at all? He is 17, so apply the capacity rule (a minor's contract is voidable at the minor's election, except for necessaries) and decide whether he should avoid or affirm, given that he wants more money. (2) Can the company use the arbitration clause to keep him out of court? This half is beyond your midterm (duress, unconscionability and notice of an exclusion clause belong to impeachment and terms), so if you meet it on your paper, write one short paragraph; Keith's key spends most of its space here, which is why this question is good practice for the final. (3) How much is he owed? This half is in scope: certainty of terms ("to be determined" may be an agreement to agree) and the oral promise as a collateral contract or a misrepresentation. Ten marks is about 22 minutes, so put most of the time into issues 1 and 3.
Answer
Issue 1. Is Jake, a minor, bound by the participation agreement?
Rule. In Ontario a minor is a person under 18. A minor's contract is voidable at the minor's election, not automatically void: the minor may affirm it (keep it) or avoid it (cancel it), and may affirm a voidable contract on reaching the age of majority. A minor is bound only by contracts for necessaries, meaning goods or services needed for basic existence such as food, clothing and shelter. Entertainment contracts are not necessaries.
Application. Jake is 17 and a television participation agreement is not a necessary, so the contract is voidable at his election. He has two options. If he avoids the contract he loses the contractual basis for his claim to more money. If he affirms it he can use it to argue he is owed more than $15,000. Since he wants more money he should affirm it and argue it on its merits. His age also strengthens his argument against the arbitration clause.
Issue 2. (Beyond this midterm.) Does the arbitration clause stop Jake from suing in court?
Rule. An exclusion or limitation clause in a standard form contract is enforceable only if (a) it was brought sufficiently to the other party's attention (reasonable notice, Tilden Rent-A-Car, unless the term was naturally expected) and (b) it is not unconscionable. A term is unconscionable if there is a significant inequality of bargaining power and the term is improvident or unduly one-sided. A contract may also be voidable for duress, including economic duress, where one party is pressured into signing by an illegitimate threat that leaves no reasonable alternative.
Application. Duress: Jake was told he "must" sign, with five minutes before filming and no chance to read, negotiate or take advice, which looks like economic duress, but duress is very hard to prove. Unconscionability is the better argument. There is a large inequality of bargaining power between a 17-year-old aspiring influencer with no legal sophistication and a sophisticated production company. The clause is improvident because it demands about CAD $25,000 upfront whatever the outcome and requires arbitration in London, which is inaccessible and effectively denies Jake access to justice. Keith's key compares it to Uber v Heller. Jake very likely has a strong argument that the clause is unenforceable, so he can sue in an Ontario court.
Issue 3. How much is Jake owed under the contract?
Rule. A contract must have terms certain enough to enforce, and a bare agreement to agree on a term such as price later is not enforceable. A promise made before signing can be a collateral contract if it was meant to induce the signature, and a false statement of fact that induces a contract is a misrepresentation.
Application. Written term: "to be determined based on how far the contestant advances" is vague, but it clearly contemplates more money for going further, and $15,000 (only $5,000 above the base) for finishing in the final five of 23 looks inconsistent with it, so Jake can argue he is owed much more. The company will answer that the term is too uncertain to enforce because it is an agreement to agree. Keith's key also credits contra proferentem (a standard form is read against the party that drafted it), but that is an interpretation rule and is beyond this midterm. Oral promise: Jake can argue that the "$50,000 to $200,000" statement was a collateral contract (a separate promise that induced him to sign) or a misrepresentation that induced him to enter the contract. The company will say the range is also too vague to enforce, another agreement to agree.
Conclusion. Jake has strong arguments that the arbitration clause is unenforceable, so he can sue in court. The contract is voidable because he is a minor, but he should affirm it to claim more. He is likely owed more than the $15,000 offered under the written contract, and possibly under the oral promise, although there is a real risk that the payment term is held void as an agreement to agree. His damages would be the amount owed above the $15,000.
Q2Very likely10 marks
The production company hires Highland Safety Services Ltd to inspect and certify as safe the forest where contestants will be blindfolded and tied to trees overnight. Highland's inspector, Margaret MacLeod, spends 15 minutes on the site although industry standards require a standardized checklist audit of at least two hours, which includes checking at least one tree for rot. She skips the rot check and misses that several trees have rotted roots. The production company's own safety advisor warns, from the weather forecast, that strong winds could throw debris and injure contestants, but because of the tight filming schedule the company goes ahead and tells the crew to "look out for any debris". Strong winds bring down a rotted tree, which hits contestant Eric Nam and causes a severe concussion and broken arm. Eric had chosen a very elaborate shirt that restricted his movement and could not raise his hand in time to protect his face, although he saw the tree falling. A second tree, with no rot, hits camera operator David Chen, who saw it falling but was too "in the moment" to move; he is left partially paralyzed. Eric and David both want to sue. Analyze their claims and identify all the potential defendants.
How to answer
Build a grid of two plaintiffs against two defendants (Highland Safety and the production company) and run the four-part negligence test, doing duty and damages once and keeping separate paragraphs for causation, because causation comes out differently for each pairing and carries most of the marks. Use the expert standard for the inspector (professional negligence). Then give contributory negligence for each plaintiff, mention that the production company can claim contribution from Highland, and finish with damages. Ten marks is about 22 minutes.
Answer
Issue. Can Eric and David succeed in negligence against Highland Safety Services Ltd and/or the production company?
Rule. On a balance of probabilities the plaintiff must prove (a) a duty of care: it was reasonably foreseeable that the defendant's carelessness could harm the plaintiff; (b) breach of the standard of care: the defendant fell below what a reasonable person with the same expertise would have done in the circumstances; (c) causation: applying the "but for" test, the breach caused the harm, and the defendant need not be the only cause; and (d) damages: general damages for pain and suffering and special damages for quantifiable losses. Contributory negligence is a partial defence that reduces damages where the plaintiff contributed to their own harm.
Application. Against Highland Safety. Duty: it was hired specifically to certify the area as safe, so it was foreseeable that a careless inspection could hurt anyone in the area, contestants and crew alike, and the duty is owed to both Eric and David. Standard: the inspector spent 15 minutes instead of the two-hour audit and skipped the check for rotted trees, a clear breach of the standard of a competent safety inspector (professional negligence). Causation is where Highland's liability is limited. David's tree had no rot and fell purely because of the wind, so Highland's failure to find rot did not cause his injury and his claim against Highland probably fails. Eric's claim is stronger because his tree had rotted roots that a proper inspection would have found and condemned. Even so, a healthy tree also fell, which shows the wind could knock down sound trees, so a court could find that the tree would have fallen anyway and the rot was not the but-for cause of Eric's injury. That is the weakest point of Eric's claim against Highland, and it will turn on expert evidence about whether the rot made it materially more likely that the tree fell on him.
Against the production company. Duty: the same, owed to everyone in the filming area. Standard: its own safety advisor warned that strong winds could cause debris that injures contestants and crew, and a reasonable production company would have halted filming; carrying on because of the schedule, with only an instruction to "look out for any debris", is a breach. Causation is stronger and the same for both plaintiffs: but for the decision to go ahead, neither would have been in harm's way. The fact that one tree was rotted and one was not is irrelevant to the company's liability, because the warning was about wind-driven debris in general and both injuries were a foreseeable result. The company is likely liable to both and can seek contribution from Highland for Eric's injury.
Damages. Eric has general damages for pain and suffering (concussion and broken arm) and special damages for medical costs and lost income. David's partial paralysis is far more serious: substantial general damages (pain and suffering, loss of enjoyment of life) and very large special damages (future care costs, medical expenses and loss of earning capacity over his career).
Defences. Contributory negligence reduces each plaintiff's damages. Eric chose an elaborate shirt that restricted his movement for an outdoor physical challenge and so could not shield his face although he saw the tree fall, which a court would likely call careless. David saw the tree falling and failed to react because he was "too in the moment", and a reasonable camera operator who sees a falling tree would take evasive action. Each finding reduces that plaintiff's damages in proportion to their fault but does not remove them.
Conclusion. Both plaintiffs have strong claims against the production company, which ignored a direct and specific warning. They also have claims against Highland Safety, whose strength depends on causation: weak for David and arguable for Eric. Both face a contributory-negligence reduction.
Q3Very likely6 marks
Before filming, Dorinda Medley, who has little idea how investments work, gave her close friend Lisa Rinna, who has significant investing experience, full discretionary authority over her investment portfolio. Lisa accepted and promised to "look after your money like it was my own". At the castle Lisa learned from another contestant that a small cosmetics company, GlowUp Inc., was about to be acquired by a major conglomerate. Instead of buying GlowUp shares for Dorinda's portfolio, Lisa bought $500,000 of GlowUp stock with her own money and told Dorinda nothing, because she feared it would be hard to hide her status as a Traitor from her. The stock tripled and Lisa made $1,000,000 profit while Dorinda's portfolio stayed flat. Dorinda finds out after filming and wants to sue Lisa. Advise Dorinda on whether she has a valid claim and what remedies she may get.
How to answer
One claim, breach of fiduciary duty. Prove the relationship with Keith's three-part test, list a fiduciary's four duties, apply them to each of Lisa's acts, deal with her excuse, and finish with the remedies. Six marks is about 13 minutes.
Answer
Issue. Has Lisa breached a fiduciary duty to Dorinda, and what remedies are available?
Rule. A fiduciary relationship exists where one party accepts a duty to act in the best interests of another and the other places trust, confidence and reliance in the fiduciary. Keith's three-part test asks whether (a) the fiduciary has scope for the exercise of some power or discretion; (b) the power or discretion can be exercised unilaterally so as to affect the beneficiary's legal or practical interests; and (c) the beneficiary is peculiarly vulnerable to the exercise of that discretion or power. A fiduciary must (a) act solely in the beneficiary's best interests, (b) avoid conflicts of interest, (c) not profit personally from the position without the beneficiary's informed consent, and (d) disclose all material information and opportunities relevant to the beneficiary's interests. The remedies for breach are an account of profits (the fiduciary hands over any gain made from the breach) and/or equitable compensation for the beneficiary's losses.
Application. Relationship: Lisa had full discretionary authority over the portfolio (part a), she could act without asking and so change Dorinda's financial position (part b), and Dorinda, who knew little about investing, relied entirely on Lisa's expertise and loyalty (part c). Lisa accepted the role and promised to "look after your money like it was my own", which is the kind of relationship that exists between an investment manager and a client, so a fiduciary relationship is very likely. Breach: Lisa put her own interest above Dorinda's by buying GlowUp for herself, failed to disclose the opportunity, and made a secret $1,000,000 profit from an opportunity that arose within her role. Her excuse, that she did not want to reveal she was a Traitor, is not a legal justification for breaching her duty.
Remedies. Dorinda is entitled to an account of profits: Lisa must give up the $1,000,000, which is the main remedy for breach of fiduciary duty. My addition: equitable compensation is the alternative, but Dorinda's portfolio lost nothing (it stayed flat), so the account of profits is the natural remedy.
Conclusion. Dorinda has a very strong claim for breach of fiduciary duty and is entitled to an account of Lisa's $1,000,000 profit.
Q4Very likely6 marks
Natalie Anderson, a Survivor winner, has signed an exclusive contract with Netflix to appear in its show Wilderness Wars, with a clause that she cannot sign with any competing streaming service from the date she signed until one year after the show airs. Sarah Williams, a Peacock executive who knows about the Netflix contract, tells Natalie's agent: "Netflix is going to cancel Wilderness Wars anyway - I have inside information. Tell Natalie to sign with us for a three-season deal worth $2 million." The agent passes it on, and Natalie believes it and signs with Peacock. She had already been thinking about leaving Netflix because she enjoyed working with Peacock, but the news about the cancellation "ultimately convinced her". A week later Netflix announces that the show is going ahead, and it sues Natalie for breach of contract. Advise Netflix on any claims against Sarah Williams and Peacock and their chance of success.
How to answer
Two business torts, each with its own rule. Inducing breach of contract: knowledge of the contract, inducement, breach, damage. Unlawful interference with economic relations: an unlawful act directed at a third party, intent to harm the plaintiff economically, and resulting harm. Deal with Peacock's best argument (Natalie was going to leave anyway), bring in vicarious liability for Peacock, and end with the remedy. Six marks is about 13 minutes.
Answer
Issue. Can Netflix succeed against Sarah Williams and Peacock for inducing Natalie's breach of contract and/or for unlawful interference with economic relations?
Rule. Inducing breach of contract: the plaintiff must show (a) the defendant knew of the existing contract, (b) the defendant, by some act or inducement, caused the other party to breach it, and (c) the breach caused the plaintiff damage. Unlawful interference with economic relations: the plaintiff must show (a) the defendant committed an unlawful act (one that is actionable by a third party, or would be if that third party had suffered the resulting loss), (b) directed against a third party (here Natalie), (c) with the intent to cause economic harm to the plaintiff, and (d) which did cause economic harm.
Application. Inducing breach. Knowledge: Sarah "knows about the Netflix contract", so knowledge is clear. Inducement: she told Natalie's agent that Netflix would cancel the show, which was false, and Natalie signed with Peacock and so breached her Netflix exclusivity clause. Peacock and Sarah may argue that Natalie was going to leave anyway, so the statement did not induce the breach, but Natalie's own statement that the information "ultimately convinced her" is likely enough. Damage: Natalie's departure forces Netflix to replace her or delay production. Peacock's liability: Sarah made the statements as a Peacock executive, so Peacock is vicariously liable for her tort as her employer, and it benefits directly from the breach.
Unlawful interference. Sarah's statement about inside information was a false statement made to get Natalie to act, which could ground deceit against Natalie and is therefore an unlawful act. It was directed at a third party (Natalie), made to deprive Netflix of her services, and it did cause Netflix economic harm, so all four elements appear to be met.
Conclusion. Netflix has strong claims against both Sarah Williams and Peacock for inducing Natalie's breach of contract, supported by a claim for unlawful interference with economic relations. Peacock is vicariously liable for Sarah. Netflix can claim damages, including the cost of replacing Natalie and any losses from the delay or alteration of Wilderness Wars.
Q5Very likely6 marks
At a Round Table in the game, contestant Michael Rapaport stands up and says loudly: "Ron is definitely a Traitor! I saw him sneaking around last night. He's a liar and a cheat, and frankly, his comedy career is built on stealing other people's jokes. Everyone in Hollywood knows he's a fraud!" Ron Funches, a comedian, was a Faithful, so the Traitor claim was untrue, and Michael made up the joke-stealing claim on the spot to turn people against Ron. The scene was filmed and later broadcast to millions of viewers on Peacock. Ron lost a major comedy tour sponsorship and received thousands of hateful messages. Advise Ron on his claim against Michael and his chance of success.
How to answer
Defamation is a low bar on the elements and is won or lost on the defences, so give the three elements briefly and spend your time on the defences. Split the statements: "Ron is a Traitor" is a game statement, while the joke-stealing and fraud statements attack his real reputation. Then go through each defence on Keith's list (truth, qualified privilege and how malice defeats it, responsible communication), and finish with damages. Six marks is about 13 minutes.
Answer
Issue. Can Ron succeed in a claim of defamation against Michael Rapaport?
Rule. The plaintiff must prove, on a balance of probabilities, that (a) the words were defamatory, meaning they would tend to lower the plaintiff's reputation in the eyes of a reasonable person; (b) the words referred to the plaintiff; and (c) the words were communicated to at least one person other than the plaintiff. The defendant may then rely on defences including truth, qualified privilege (a statement made in good faith on an occasion of duty or common interest) and responsible communication on a matter of public interest.
Application. Defamatory words: split the statements. "Ron is a Traitor" was said in a game show where being a Traitor is part of the gameplay, so a reasonable viewer would take it as a game allegation, not an attack on Ron's real character, and it is arguably not defamatory, although the wide broadcast and the more serious allegations made with it complicate that. "His comedy career is built on stealing other people's jokes" and "everyone in Hollywood knows he's a fraud" go far beyond the game: they attack his professional integrity, would lower a reasonable person's opinion of him as a comedian, and are clearly defamatory. Reference: Michael named Ron. Communication: the Round Table was broadcast to millions of viewers on Peacock, which is far more than one other person. My addition: a broadcast is a permanent form, so the claim is in libel rather than slander.
Defences. Truth fails: the joke-stealing claim was completely made up and Michael cannot prove it. Qualified privilege: the Round Table may give some game-related privilege for discussing who is a Traitor, but privilege is lost where the statement is made with malice, and Michael invented the joke-stealing claim to turn people against Ron; a broadcast to millions also goes far beyond any protected occasion. Responsible communication on a matter of public interest: a fabricated claim made to manipulate a game cannot qualify.
Damages. Ron lost a major comedy tour sponsorship and received thousands of hateful messages, which is concrete evidence of damage to his reputation. He can claim general damages for harm to his professional reputation and special damages for the lost sponsorship.
Conclusion. Ron has a very strong defamation claim, especially for the joke-stealing and fraud statements. All three elements are met and no defence is likely to succeed, so he can expect general and special damages.
Q6Final exam only2 marks
Johnny Weir agrees to buy a tartan cloak from Mark Ballas for $5,000, they shake hands and Johnny pays in full. Johnny believes he is buying the cloak Mark wore in the famous Episode 7 "murder in plain sight" challenge, worth about $15,000 to collectors. Mark believes he is selling a cloak from an earlier, forgettable challenge, which is worth about $1,500, and that is the one he delivers. Mark refuses to refund the money or swap the cloaks. Johnny wants his money back. You advise him: (a) the contract is enforceable because both parties agreed on the essential terms, a cloak for $5,000, and Johnny should have been more specific; (b) the contract is void for mutual mistake about the subject matter, since both parties were mistaken about which cloak was being sold; (c) the contract is voidable at Johnny's election for unilateral mistake, since only Johnny was mistaken; (d) the contract is voidable for innocent misrepresentation, since Mark made a false statement about the cloak; (e) the contract is void for mistake as to the existence of the subject matter, since the cloak Johnny wanted was never offered.
How to answer
This is a mistake question, which is impeachment, so it is not on your midterm, but learn the answer for the final. Ask who was mistaken about what: here each side had a different cloak in mind, so the question is whether there was real agreement on the subject matter at all.
Answer
Conclusion. (b). Johnny and Mark were at cross purposes about which cloak was being sold, each meaning a different one, so there was no true agreement on the subject matter and the contract is void for mutual mistake (the Raffles v Wichelhaus pattern, where two ships had the same name). Johnny can therefore get his money back. (a) is wrong because the parties never agreed on which cloak. (c) is wrong because unilateral mistake needs only one party to be mistaken (and the other to know), but both were mistaken. (d) is wrong because Mark made no false statement and was equally mistaken. (e) is wrong because the cloak existed; the problem is that the parties meant different cloaks.
Q7Very likely7 marks
Stephen Colletti wants to invest in a restaurant. Kristen Kish says she is selling her 25% stake in a Toronto restaurant, Ember & Oak, because she is "too busy with hosting duties". She tells him: "The restaurant has been profitable every year since it opened. We've averaged about $200,000 in annual profits over the past three years. The books are solid - I wouldn't sell you something that wasn't a good investment." Stephen buys the stake for $1,000,000 with a handshake and transfers the money the next week. He never asked to see the books, although Kristen would likely have shown them. He later finds that the restaurant has lost money for the past two years, with accumulated losses of $150,000, and that the only profitable year was three years ago, when a celebrity chef's guest appearance produced the $200,000. Kristen received monthly statements from the restaurant's manager and admits she "never really looked at them closely" for two years because she trusted the manager, who told her it was profitable. Stephen wants to rescind and recover his $1,000,000. Advise him on his claims and their chance of success.
How to answer
Use Keith's misrepresentation test. Show that Kristen made statements of fact (not opinion) and that they were false, classify the type (fraudulent, negligent or innocent) by her state of mind, show inducement, then deal with the counter-argument that Stephen should have checked the books, and finish with the remedies. Seven marks is about 15 minutes.
Answer
Issue. Can Stephen rescind the contract and/or recover damages for misrepresentation?
Rule. A misrepresentation is a false statement of existing fact (not mere opinion) that induces a party to enter a contract. There are three types. Fraudulent: made knowingly, without belief in its truth, or recklessly without caring whether it is true, which entitles the innocent party to rescission and damages in the tort of deceit. Negligent: made carelessly, without reasonable grounds for believing it to be true, which entitles the innocent party to rescission and damages. Innocent: made honestly and on reasonable grounds, which generally entitles the innocent party to rescission but not damages. Keith's test: (a) a statement of fact is made; (b) it is false (negligent: a special relationship, that is a duty of care, and falling below the standard; fraudulent: the speaker knows it is false; innocent: neither); (c) the hearer reasonably acted on the statement; and (d) the hearer suffered a loss caused by relying on it.
Application. Misrepresentation: "profitable every year since it opened" and "averaged about $200,000 in annual profits over the past three years" were false, because the restaurant had lost money for two years, and they are statements of existing fact about the business's financial condition, not opinion. My addition: "I wouldn't sell you something that wasn't a good investment" is opinion and is not by itself actionable, but the statements about profits are. Type: fraudulent is possible because Kristen received monthly statements for two years and never really looked at them, and confident statements about profit made while ignoring readily available figures can be reckless, but her manager told her the restaurant was profitable, which suggests a genuine, if careless, belief, so fraud is uncertain. Negligent misrepresentation is the stronger claim: she made positive statements about financial health to a person she knew was considering buying her stake, a reasonable person with monthly statements would have read them first, and she had no reasonable grounds for believing the restaurant had been profitable for three years. Inducement: Stephen agreed to buy, and transferred $1,000,000, directly because of those statements.
Counter-argument: Kristen will say Stephen never asked to see the books and the truth would have appeared if he had. Caveat emptor (buyer beware) applies mainly where the seller makes no representation; once a seller makes a positive statement of fact the seller cannot escape by saying the buyer could have found out. This argument is unlikely to defeat the claim fully, although it may affect the extent of liability.
Remedies. Stephen can rescind: return the stake and recover his $1,000,000, which is his primary remedy and is available because the misrepresentation was a material inducement. For negligent misrepresentation he may also claim damages for consequential losses, such as professional fees or lost opportunities.
Conclusion. Stephen has a strong claim in negligent misrepresentation (and possibly fraudulent misrepresentation). A false statement of fact, made carelessly, induced him to buy. He will likely succeed in rescinding the contract and recovering his $1,000,000, and the caveat emptor argument is unlikely to defeat him.
Q8Final exam only6 marks
The production company agrees by phone with Lord MacTavish, the owner of Ardross Castle, "to rent Ardross Castle exclusively for filming from January 1 to February 15, 2027, for a total fee of £500,000, payable in two installments". Nothing is signed. Lord MacTavish lets the production crew enter the castle two weeks early to set up and make modifications for filming. Around the same time Netflix phones him: it wants to film Wilderness Wars on the grounds and in the castle for the same period and will pay £1,000,000. The paper asks you to advise the production company on whether the new agreement can be signed and on the risks of signing it; Keith's key treats it as whether Lord MacTavish can sign with Netflix and what follows.
How to answer
Two issues. First, is there an enforceable contract with the production company? Formation is in scope (offer, acceptance, consideration), but the oral lease of land raises the Statute of Frauds and part performance, which are beyond this midterm, so treat this as final-exam practice for the writing rule and as midterm practice for the formation part. Second, what follows if he signs with Netflix?
Answer
Issue 1. Does the production company have a valid, enforceable contract with Lord MacTavish?
Rule. A contract needs offer, acceptance and consideration. Under Ontario's Statute of Frauds contracts for the sale or lease of land generally must be evidenced in writing to be enforceable. The equitable doctrine of part performance is an exception: an oral contract concerning land may be enforced if (a) there was an oral contract concerning land, (b) the party partly performed under it, and (c) the acts of performance are referable to, and inextricably linked to, the land contract, so that it would be fraudulent to ignore them.
Application. A valid contract was formed: the final phone call was a clear offer and acceptance on definite terms (exclusive use from January 1 to February 15, 2027, for £500,000 in two installments) with consideration (the fee). Because it was oral and concerns a lease of land, Lord MacTavish may rely on the lack of writing, but part performance applies: the production company entered the castle two weeks early and began modifying it with his permission, acts of possession and modification that are inextricably linked to the land and are unmistakable evidence of the contract. So the contract is enforceable in equity despite the writing requirement.
Issue 2. Can Lord MacTavish sign the Netflix agreement, and what are the risks?
Application. If the contract with the production company is enforceable, as it is, Lord MacTavish cannot sign with Netflix for the same period without breaching it, because Netflix's proposed use directly conflicts with the production company's exclusive rights. My addition, not in Keith's key: the practical risks include a damages claim (and possibly an order to stop him from giving the castle to Netflix) by the production company, and, if Netflix knows about the existing contract, a claim against Netflix for inducing breach of contract as in Q4.
Conclusion. The production company has a valid, enforceable contract with Lord MacTavish: it was supported by consideration and made enforceable by the crew's part performance. Lord MacTavish cannot lawfully sign with Netflix for the same period without breaching his agreement.
Past midterm: Fall 2023 with Keith's suggested answers
Fall 2023 was a closed-book, 2-hour paper marked out of 42: five short-answer problems and two multiple choice questions, built around Oppenheimer and the Manhattan Project (Ontario law applied to events in the United States). Every question is inside your midterm scope. Q2 and Q3 are the multiple choice questions; the correct options are marked in Keith's answer paper and are given below with the reason for each. The long answers are condensed from his suggested answers. Where I add something he did not say, it is marked as my addition.
Q1Very likely8 marks
Henry Stimson, the U.S. Secretary of War, meets a local contractor, Builder X Inc., about building a housing village at Los Alamos for the Manhattan Project. They shake hands. In New Mexico a handshake usually signals that a deal is made, but that is not the practice anywhere else in the United States, including Stimson's base in Washington. Builder X goes back to its office, drafts a "Building Agreement", signs it and mails it to the government. It says Builder X will build the project to specifications to be provided and agreed by December 1, 1942; that the government will pay "a minimum of $10 million USD, with the actual amount to be determined by mutual agreement between the parties when the specifications are finalized"; and that "due to the urgency of this project" Builder X "will not comply with the Building Code as required by New Mexico state law". Stimson never signs. The next week Builder X arrives on site and starts building while Stimson is away negotiating a better deal with another company. When Stimson returns he sees the work and finds the letter in his mail. He wants to get out of the contract, if there is one. Advise him of his best options.
How to answer
Walk through the contract-formation checklist and decide where it fails: offer, acceptance, consideration, certainty of terms, legality. The three weak points are acceptance (the handshake as a trade usage Stimson did not know, and the postal rule that does not fit because the builder wrote and sent the document itself), certainty (a price that is only a minimum with the rest to be agreed) and illegality (a promise to ignore the building code). Argue both sides on each, then conclude. Keith's marking note says you may find that a contract was formed and still earn full marks, because marks go to the issue-spotting and analysis, not the conclusion.
Answer
Issue. Can the U.S. government choose another builder because it has no contract with Builder X?
Rule. For a contract to be formed there must be (a) an offer, which must be capable of being accepted; (b) acceptance, which must be communicated to the offeror and takes effect when received by the offeror (the exception is the postal acceptance rule); and (c) consideration, the agreement of the parties to exchange value. The terms must also be certain and not too ambiguous to be enforceable, and a contract cannot be illegal or it is void for illegality.
Application. It is unlikely a contract was formed, because there was no acceptance, the terms are likely too ambiguous to enforce, and part or all of the contract may be void for illegality. Offer: the offer was made in the parties' discussion and then formalized in the letter that Builder X mailed. Acceptance: there was none. Builder X may argue that the handshake accepted the deal because shaking hands is a trade usage in New Mexico, but Stimson did not know of that usage, so it is unlikely to have signified acceptance. It may also argue that the signed agreement was "accepted" under the postal acceptance rule when it was mailed, but this is not a case where someone received a detailed offer and accepted it by mail: Builder X wrote and signed the document itself and sent it for the government to accept, which the government never did, so the letter is likely just another offer. Consideration: there is consideration, the building of the project on one side and "a minimum of $10 million" on the other. Certainty: the price has not been set. Builder X will argue that "a minimum of $10 million" guides the court, but there is no objective measure the court could use to fix the final price, so it is likely a mere agreement to agree and unenforceable. Illegality: the agreement contemplates not following the building code, so it may be void for illegality or against public policy, although a court may strike only that term rather than the whole contract.
Conclusion. Stimson's best position is that there is no contract: (a) it was not accepted, (b) it is too uncertain, and (c) it may be void in whole or in part for illegality or public policy.
Q2Very likely2 marks
After the builder dispute is settled, a contract is formed and the project moves ahead. The written agreement says nothing about the wood to be used. Stimson, worried about New Mexico's dry climate, asks the builder: "Are you going to use kiln dried wood? It is very important in this climate to use this wood!" The builder replies that, although it is more expensive, they will use kiln dried wood. At the end Stimson finds that kiln dried wood was not used and sues for breach of contract. You advise him: (a) he will likely succeed because the written contract provided for kiln dried wood; (b) he is unlikely to succeed because there was never an offer to use kiln dried wood; (c) he is unlikely to succeed because there was never acceptance of the offer to use kiln dried wood; (d) he is unlikely to succeed because there was no consideration for the promise to use kiln dried wood; (e) he will likely succeed because there was offer, acceptance and consideration for the promise.
How to answer
Check each option against the facts. The written contract was silent, so option (a) is out. The builder's reply was a clear promise, so offer and acceptance are not the problem. Then ask what Stimson gave in return for the extra promise.
Answer
Conclusion. (d). The promise to use kiln dried wood was made after the contract was formed, and the written contract does not mention wood, so (a) is wrong. Stimson gave nothing new in return for the builder's promise to take on a more expensive material: he was already bound to pay the contract price, so the promise has no consideration and is not enforceable. Options (b) and (c) are wrong because the exchange of words was an offer (a request and an assurance) and an acceptance; the problem is missing value, not missing agreement. Option (e) is wrong because consideration is exactly what is missing. My addition: had Stimson agreed to pay the extra cost, there would have been fresh consideration.
Q3Very likely2 marks
Theodore Hall is a physicist who is only 15. He signs an employment agreement, a lease for his house and an agreement for custom furniture to be shipped to his house. He is having second thoughts about all three contracts. You advise him: (a) he is bound by all of them and would breach every one if he backed out; (b) since he is a minor all the contracts are voidable at his election; (c) only the contract for the house would be voidable; (d) only the contract for the furniture would be voidable; (e) none of the contracts is voidable at his election.
How to answer
Use the capacity rule and sort the three contracts: contracts for necessaries bind a minor, a beneficial contract of employment binds a minor, and everything else is voidable at the minor's election.
Answer
Conclusion. (d). A minor's contract is voidable at the minor's election unless it is for necessaries (food, clothing and shelter) or is a beneficial contract of service such as employment. The lease for his house is shelter, a necessary, so it binds him. The employment agreement is a beneficial contract of service, so it binds him. The custom furniture is neither a necessary nor employment, so only that contract is voidable at his election. Option (b) is wrong because it ignores the exceptions, and (a) and (e) are wrong because the furniture contract can be avoided.
Q4Very likely8 marks
The Manhattan Project team builds its first atom bomb prototype and holsters it on top of a large structure to simulate a test drop. The night before, the physicist Richard Feynman, as a prank, forms pillows into the shape of a person, puts a radio inside the pillow figure, climbs the structure and leaves the figure next to the bomb. The next morning, at the countdown, the lights reveal the silhouette of the bomb with the silhouette of a person next to it, and the radio blares "Help me I'm still up here". The two physicists responsible for the drop have already pressed the launch button, but when they see the silhouette and hear the call they immediately press the "abort mission" button, which releases a parachute meant to land the bomb safely without exploding. The parachute maker used the wrong material and sizing, so the parachute cannot hold the bomb, and strong wind carries it to land hard not far from the Los Alamos village, where it explodes and injures many people. Nobody dies, but Feynman himself loses a leg. The injured, including Feynman, want to bring claims. Advise them, discussing all potential claims, counterarguments and defences.
How to answer
Negligence against two defendants, Feynman and the parachute manufacturer, with the four-part test for each. Spend the most time on causation (the "but for" test, and the point that a defendant need not be the sole cause), then damages (the three types) and the one defence the key raises, contributory negligence against Feynman's own claim. Eight marks is about 16 to 22 minutes.
Answer
Issue. Can the injured parties bring a claim in negligence against Feynman and/or the parachute manufacturer?
Rule. To succeed in negligence the plaintiff must show (a) the defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care; (b) the defendant fell below the standard of care; (c) the plaintiff suffered damages or injuries; and (d) the damages were caused by the breach of the standard of care.
Application. Duty of care: the plaintiff must show a sufficient relationship of proximity such that it was reasonably foreseeable to the defendant that carelessness could harm the plaintiff. Feynman: it was foreseeable to a person in his position that any misstep during the test of an atom bomb could injure anyone near the site, so he owed a duty to everyone around it. Parachute maker: the parachute was a safety device designed to avoid harm if the mission was aborted, so it was foreseeable that mistakes in making it could injure anyone near the bomb. Standard of care: the defendant is held to the standard of a reasonable person with the same expertise. Feynman is held to the standard of a physicist with special knowledge of the bomb, and a reasonable physicist would not interfere with a bomb test, so he very likely breached it. The maker is held to the standard of a reasonable parachute manufacturer, and using the wrong material and sizing is not what a reasonable manufacturer would do, so it very likely breached too.
Causation: the plaintiff must show that "but for" the breach the damages would not have occurred. Feynman: but for the prank the test would not have been aborted and the injuries would not have happened. He may argue that the faulty parachute, not his prank, caused the harm, because a proper parachute would have landed the bomb safely. That argument is unlikely to succeed, because a defendant does not need to be the sole cause, only a cause. Manufacturer: but for the wrong material and size the bomb would likely have landed softly and not exploded. The maker may argue that the wind was the main cause. If the evidence shows the bomb would have exploded even with a proper parachute, the maker may succeed in showing there was no causation.
Damages. General damages (pain and suffering, loss of enjoyment of life) and pecuniary or special damages (out-of-pocket costs such as hospital bills and lost wages) for everyone injured. In a rare case a court may award punitive damages to punish and deter, and a prank during the test of such a dangerous bomb may be egregious enough to justify them against Feynman.
Defences. The parachute maker can argue contributory negligence against Feynman's own claim: although the maker contributed to his injury, Feynman contributed to his own harm by placing the dummy that caused the late abort. This is not a full defence and only reduces the maker's liability to Feynman. There are unlikely to be defences to the other claims. My addition: because the parachute was a defective product, this is also a product liability claim against its manufacturer for a manufacturing defect, which rests on the same duty of care.
Conclusion. The negligence claim is likely to succeed against one or both defendants, and the maker may raise contributory negligence against Feynman's own claim. Keith's marking notes accept a mention of a class action and accept a conclusion of no negligence if the analysis is sound.
Q5Very likely8 marks
After the blast the physicist Niels Bohr has a severe concussion and has been more aggressive than usual and not thinking clearly. At dinner Feynman tries to defend himself by saying "it was just a joke". This sets Bohr off so badly that he blacks out. When he wakes he is standing over Feynman, who is on the ground covered in blood, and Bohr has a knife in the side of his own chest. It turns out that Bohr had jumped over the table to attack Feynman in a fit of rage, and Feynman pulled a pocketknife and stabbed him. Both are severely injured. Afterwards Bohr is said to have yelled "I am going to kill everyone in this room". Three other physicists in the room were so scared that they ran out, and it was at that point that Bohr "woke up" from his rage. Discuss the claims that might be brought, the defences that may apply, and the likely outcome.
How to answer
Identify three sets of claims: Bohr against Feynman (battery), Feynman against Bohr (battery), and the three other physicists against Bohr (assault). The elements are easy to meet, so keep them short and spend your time on the defences: incapacity for Bohr (he blacked out and could not form the intent needed for an intentional tort) and self-defence for Feynman (was the force necessary and proportionate?). Keith's note says that intentional infliction of mental distress is also accepted for the three bystanders, in place of or in addition to assault.
Answer
Issue. Can Bohr and Feynman succeed against each other in battery, and can the other physicists succeed against Bohr in assault?
Rule. Battery: the defendant touched the plaintiff without the plaintiff's consent (intentional application of force). Assault: the defendant uttered a threat of imminent harm that caused the plaintiff to reasonably fear harm. Two defences matter here. Incapacity: a defendant who lacks capacity cannot form the intent an intentional tort requires. Self-defence: the force must be necessary, the defendant must reasonably believe there is a risk of harm, and the force must be proportionate to the harm being deterred.
Application. Battery: both men applied force to the other without consent (Bohr attacked Feynman and Feynman stabbed Bohr), so the elements are likely met on both sides. Feynman's claim against Bohr: Bohr would likely succeed in the defence of incapacity, because he blacked out and so lost the capacity to form the intent for battery. Bohr's claim against Feynman: Feynman was protecting himself against an attack and used reasonable force, so self-defence is likely to succeed. Bohr may argue the force was not proportionate, but it was a pocketknife and Bohr survived, so a court would likely find it a reasonable response to a rage attack. Assault: all the other physicists can likely prove the elements. Bohr's words "I am going to kill everyone in this room", said right after attacking Feynman, would reasonably make everyone fear for their lives and are a threat of imminent harm. But Bohr's defence of incapacity succeeds again, for the same reasons.
Conclusion. The elements of battery and assault are likely met, but all the claims are likely to fail because of the defences of incapacity and/or self-defence. Keith's marking notes: intentional infliction of mental distress may be used for the bystanders instead of or as well as assault, and a student who finds no assault or battery can still earn full marks on the analysis.
Q6Very likely6 marks
Feynman, a known prankster whose stunts include breaking into people's safes that hold confidential U.S. documents and leaving notes, quietly breaks into Stimson's home late at night. He finds a safe containing confidential U.S. Defence documents, breaks into it and leaves Stimson a note. As he leaves, his one remaining foot falls through the floor and his leg breaks. It turns out that Stimson had deliberately set up an area of his floor to catch and hurt intruders. Feynman wants to sue Stimson. Advise him on how to proceed and his likelihood of success.
How to answer
This is an Occupiers' Liability Act problem. Identify Stimson as the occupier and Feynman as a trespasser, state the duty owed to a trespasser (not to harm deliberately or set traps), apply it to the trap, and finish with causation and damages. Six marks is about 13 minutes.
Answer
Issue. Can Feynman succeed in a claim against Stimson under the Occupiers' Liability Act?
Rule. Under the Occupiers' Liability Act an occupier owes a duty of care to people who come onto the property (s. 3(1)). To a trespasser the occupier owes only the duty not to deliberately cause harm, and not to act with reckless disregard for the trespasser's presence (s. 4). To succeed, Feynman must show that (a) Stimson, as occupier, owed him a duty of care, (b) the duty owed to a trespasser is not to deliberately cause harm, (c) Stimson caused him harm in breach of that duty, and (d) he suffered damages.
Application. Feynman would very likely succeed. Duty: Stimson was the occupier of the house, and occupiers owe a duty to anyone who comes onto the property. Standard: because Feynman was a trespasser, Stimson only had to avoid deliberately causing him harm. The most common way an occupier deliberately harms someone is by setting a trap, which is exactly what Stimson did. Damages: Feynman suffered a broken leg and is entitled to general damages (pain and suffering, loss of enjoyment of life) and pecuniary damages (bills and out-of-pocket expenses, and lost wages if he cannot work). Causation: but for the trap he would not have broken his leg. My addition, not in Keith's answer: Stimson may argue that Feynman's own wrongdoing, a break-in at night, should reduce or defeat his recovery, but on Keith's analysis the trap decides the case.
Conclusion. Feynman is likely to succeed against Stimson under the Occupiers' Liability Act.
Q7Very likely8 marks
The Manhattan Project has finished, but resentment toward Oppenheimer has grown in the U.S. government because he is taking the glory. The Atomic Energy Commission opens proceedings to revoke his security clearance, at the height of McCarthyism, an era of political persecution of left-wing people accused of sympathizing with communism. At the hearing, the witness Lewis Strauss testifies: "Mr. Oppenheimer is a communist. He sympathizes with the communist movement and was involved in and continues to be involved in the communist party. He should not be trusted!" Oppenheimer had been involved in some socialist political movements, mainly campaigning for more labour unions and worker protections, but it was patently false that he had any affiliation with communist parties. He wants to bring a claim against the witness for the statements. Advise him.
How to answer
Defamation, with the elements stated briefly because they are a low bar, and the real analysis in the defence. The defence is privilege for witnesses at a hearing, and the exception is malice, so argue both ways and say the case turns on whether malice can be shown. Finish with the remedies. Eight marks is about 16 to 22 minutes.
Answer
Issue. Can Oppenheimer succeed in defamation against the witness?
Rule. The plaintiff must show that the defendant (a) made a statement that identified the plaintiff; (b) communicated it to at least one other person; and (c) the statement was defamatory, meaning it would lower the plaintiff's reputation in the minds of reasonable people. These elements are a low bar, and most defamation claims are won or lost on the defences. One defence is privilege. Keith's note says the course taught absolute and qualified privilege as a single concept: it applies where the defendant had an obligation to make the statement and the recipients had a corresponding interest in receiving it, and the most common example is experts and witnesses giving evidence in court, at tribunals or at commissions. Malice is an exception to privilege.
Application. Elements: Strauss identified the plaintiff when he said "Mr. Oppenheimer is a communist"; he communicated it to everyone at the hearing, which is more than one other person; and the statement was defamatory because, at the height of McCarthyism, supporting communism would lower a reasonable person's opinion of someone. So Oppenheimer likely makes out the elements. Defence: the claim would likely fail on privilege, because Strauss made the statement as a witness at the commission's proceedings. However, the allegation was patently false, so Strauss may have been motivated by malice, which defeats privilege. If malice can be proven the defence fails, but if it cannot be shown the defence likely prevails, and at this stage it is hard to say which is more likely.
Conclusion. The case largely turns on malice. If malice can be shown, Oppenheimer's claim is likely to succeed and he would be entitled to general damages for the loss of reputation and pecuniary damages for out-of-pocket losses, such as lost wages, caused by the statement. If it cannot be shown, the claim is likely to fail.
Keith's review deck questions (the ones he will take up in class), with my answers
These are the five questions on the last slides of Keith's deck, which he says come from old examinations. He will give his answers at the first class after reading week, so the answers below are mine, built the way his answer keys are built; compare them with his in class and correct anything that differs. All five are set at Bang Up Car Repair Inc., a closely held corporation. Howard owns 70% of the shares, and Penny, Leonard and Sheldon own 10% each. Howard, Penny and Will (a local accountant) are the directors. Leonard and Penny run the business: Leonard manages the shop and the repair work, and Penny oversees the whole business. The deck's instruction for the three problems is: identify the area of law or legal principles that are relevant to each situation, define the applicable law, apply it to Bang Up's circumstances, and include remedies and defences.
Q1Very likely
Leonard tells Penny that Bang Up needs a new hoist, because the current one cannot support the new larger SUVs and trucks. They go to Machine Art Inc., a commercial supplier of large equipment to repair shops. A man wearing a name tag reading "Stewart, Art Specialist" approaches. Leonard describes what the hoist must do. Stewart recommends the "Hoist-a-Matic" and says: "In my opinion, the Hoist-a-Matic is by far the best in the industry." Penny is worried about the price, but Stewart assures her it is worth it. Penny writes a cheque and signs a purchase order. The hoist is installed. Within a week Leonard realizes that the hoist works well but is not strong enough to lift the bigger vehicles (the deck's text reads "still strong enough", which is a typo for "not strong enough"). What are the rights and obligations of the parties?
How to answer
The area of law is misrepresentation (Keith lists it with the torts). The central step is separating Stewart's two statements: "best in the industry" is opinion and puffery, but recommending this hoist to someone who has just described the job implies that it can do the job, and that is a statement of fact from an expert. Then classify the type (negligent is the best fit), show reliance, deal with Machine Art's defences, add vicarious liability, and finish with remedies (rescission and damages).
Answer
Issue. Can Bang Up rescind the purchase or recover damages from Machine Art Inc. for a misrepresentation made by Stewart about the hoist?
Rule. A misrepresentation is a false statement of existing fact, not mere opinion or sales puffery, that induces a party to enter a contract. It is fraudulent if made knowingly or recklessly, negligent if made carelessly without reasonable grounds and where the speaker owed a duty of care, and innocent if neither. An opinion is not a statement of fact, but an opinion or recommendation from someone with special knowledge who knows the buyer's purpose is treated as implying facts the speaker should know, and a duty of care arises from that special relationship of reliance (Hercules Managements v Ernst & Young). An employer is vicariously liable for the torts of an employee acting in the course of employment. Remedies are rescission (and the return of the price) and, for negligent or fraudulent misrepresentation, damages.
Application. Statement: "best in the industry" is puffery and is not actionable by itself. The real statement is the recommendation. Leonard told Stewart the job (lift the larger SUVs and trucks), and Stewart, presenting himself as an "Art Specialist" at a commercial equipment supplier, recommended the Hoist-a-Matic as the answer, which implies that it can lift them. That statement was false. Type: nothing suggests Stewart knew it was false, so fraud is unlikely, but a specialist who is told the purpose and recommends equipment without checking its capacity falls below the standard of a careful equipment specialist, so negligent misrepresentation is the best fit. Duty: Stewart knew the purpose, held himself out as an expert and invited reliance. Inducement and reliance: Penny signed the purchase order and paid because of the recommendation, and it was reasonable for a repair shop to rely on its supplier's specialist. Loss: Bang Up paid for a hoist that does not do the job. Machine Art's likely defences are that the statement was only opinion, that Bang Up should have checked the load rating (caveat emptor, but that does not help a seller who gave a positive recommendation), that the purchase order may contain a clause excluding warranties (check the document), and that the hoist works. Bang Up acted within a week, so it has not lost the right to rescind through delay. Vicarious liability: Stewart made the recommendation as Machine Art's employee in the course of his work, so Machine Art is liable for it.
Remedies. Bang Up can rescind: return the hoist and recover its payment, then buy a suitable one. Or it can keep the hoist and claim damages for negligent misrepresentation, such as the extra cost of a hoist that can do the job and the work it lost meanwhile. Bang Up's own obligation is to act promptly and to mitigate its loss.
Conclusion. Bang Up will likely succeed against Machine Art for negligent misrepresentation based on Stewart's recommendation, and can rescind or claim damages. The "best in the industry" remark alone would not support a claim. My addition: the Sale of Goods Act has an implied condition that goods are fit for a purpose the buyer made known, which would be a second route, but it is beyond this midterm.
Q2Likely
Howard proposes to the board opening a second repair shop across town. The board agrees that a place Penny knows through her brother is the right location and, if Penny can secure a good price, approves her leasing the premises. Penny meets Wyatt, the owner, who tours her around, and at a coffee shop, after hours of negotiating, they agree a price per month for a 5-year renewable term, with Bang Up to take over at the beginning of April. They shake hands, and Penny gives Wyatt a cheque for $3,500 as the first month's rent. On March 1 Wyatt calls Penny, says he has changed his mind and is renting the property to Cal Tires Repair Shop. What are the parties' rights and obligations about the contract and the $3,500 deposit? Explain your reasons. Would your answer change if Bang Up had taken possession in February to start renovations?
How to answer
Part one is contract formation, which is in scope: authority (the board approved Penny on a condition), offer and acceptance, consideration, intention to create legal relations, certainty of terms, then breach and remedies including the deposit. Part two is the second question about possession in February, which is the writing requirement and part performance. That is beyond this midterm, so read it as final-exam practice, but it matches Winter 2026 Q8.
Answer
Issue 1. Is there a binding contract to lease the premises, and what happens to the $3,500?
Rule. A contract needs offer, acceptance, consideration, intention to create legal relations, capacity, legality and certainty of terms. A corporation acts through agents, and an agent with authority binds the corporation. Terms that are too vague, or that are only an agreement to agree, cannot be enforced. A deposit paid for a contract the other side then refuses to perform must be returned.
Application. Authority: the board approved the lease if Penny secured a good price, so she had actual authority to make the deal and Bang Up is bound by it. Offer and acceptance: Penny and Wyatt negotiated and agreed on the premises, the monthly price, a five-year term and a start date, and shook hands, so there was an offer and an acceptance. Consideration: rent in exchange for the use of the premises. Intention: this was a business negotiation, so legal relations are presumed. Certainty: price, term, parties and start date are certain; the renewal terms may be too vague, but the five-year term stands without them. So a contract was formed, and Wyatt's call on March 1 repudiates it. Bang Up can claim damages for breach (the cost of finding a comparable property, any higher rent over the term, and wasted costs) and must be refunded its $3,500, because Wyatt cannot keep a deposit for a lease he will not give. Wyatt will argue that nothing was signed, which leads to the next issue.
Issue 2. (Beyond this midterm.) Does it matter that nothing was signed, and does the answer change if Bang Up took possession in February?
Rule. Under the Statute of Frauds a contract concerning an interest in land, such as a lease of this length, generally must be evidenced in writing signed by the party to be charged, here Wyatt. Without writing the contract is unenforceable, not void, so money paid can be recovered. The exception is part performance: an oral contract concerning land, the party partly performed, and the acts of performance are referable to and inextricably linked to the land contract.
Application. On the facts as given, Wyatt signed nothing, so he can refuse to go ahead and Bang Up cannot force the lease, although it can recover its $3,500. If Bang Up had taken possession in February and begun renovating with Wyatt's permission, those acts are inextricably linked to the land and unmistakably point to the lease, so part performance would likely make the oral lease enforceable and Bang Up could seek specific performance or damages. So the answer does change.
Conclusion. A contract was formed on the negotiation and handshake, and Wyatt is in breach. Without writing or possession Bang Up probably recovers only its $3,500, but with possession and renovations the lease is likely enforceable.
Q3Very likely
Bernadette brings her car to Bang Up for regular maintenance, with a morning appointment. She arrives very early and finds the big garage door closed. As the sign says, she honks her horn. Denise, the only mechanic who has arrived, is not sure how to operate the big door but presses the button, and the door opens only halfway. Bernadette is not sure whether to drive in because she cannot see well, but Denise waves her in. Bernadette inches in with her eyes fixed on the partly open door, hoping the car will clear it. Halfway through she hears what she thinks is a scrape, but it is only Barry, another mechanic, coming in from the front office. He startles her so much that she panics and steps on the gas instead of the brake and runs over Denise, who is still in front of the car guiding her in. Denise has a major concussion, a broken leg, multiple broken ribs and a punctured lung. What are the rights and obligations of the parties?
How to answer
Negligence for each pair of parties. Denise against Bernadette: run the four-part test, giving Bernadette's best argument (panic, sudden surprise) and why it probably fails. Then Bang Up: it is the occupier (Occupiers' Liability Act) and the employer of Denise and Barry, so ask whether Denise carelessly waved Bernadette in (vicarious liability) and whether Bang Up itself failed to train its staff on the door. Finish with contributory negligence on each side and damages.
Answer
Issue. Can Denise sue Bernadette and/or Bang Up in negligence, how does Bernadette's position against Bang Up work, and how do the defences change the result?
Rule. Negligence needs a duty of care, breach of the standard of care (that of a reasonable person in the circumstances), causation (but for) and damages. Contributory negligence reduces damages in proportion to the plaintiff's own fault. Voluntary assumption of risk is a defence only where the plaintiff expressly or impliedly agreed to give up the right to sue. An employer is vicariously liable for an employee's negligence in the course of employment. Under the Occupiers' Liability Act s. 3(1) an occupier must take reasonable care to see that people entering the premises are reasonably safe.
Application. Denise against Bernadette. Duty: a driver owes a duty to people in the path of the car, which is plainly foreseeable. Breach: a reasonable driver creeping into a workshop where staff are standing in front of the car keeps a foot over the brake and watches the person ahead; stepping on the gas instead of the brake, with eyes on the door instead of on Denise, falls below the standard. Bernadette will say she panicked when Barry startled her, but a sudden surprise in a workshop is foreseeable and does not lower the reasonable-person standard. Causation: but for the acceleration Denise would not have been run over, and Barry's entrance was a foreseeable trigger, not a break in the chain. Damages: general damages for pain and suffering and loss of enjoyment of life, and special damages for medical costs, lost income and future care. Defences: Denise's own contributory negligence is likely, because she stood in front of a moving car to guide it and waved a customer under a half-open door when she did not know how to run the door, and her damages would be reduced. Voluntary assumption of risk is unlikely, because she did not agree to give up a claim.
Bang Up. It is the occupier, and Bernadette is an invited customer. A door that opens only halfway, with only an untrained mechanic present, and an employee waving a customer through it, falls below reasonable care, and Bang Up answers for Denise's carelessness as her employer and also for its own failure to train and supervise. Barry's entry from the office is probably not careless, since he was walking into his own workplace. Denise's own claim against her employer is likely to be limited, because workers injured on the job usually go through workers' compensation (my addition, not taught in the course as far as I know), but Bernadette, if sued, can claim against Bang Up for a share of the blame. Bernadette's own contributory negligence is also arguable: she was unsure whether to drive in and went in anyway, keeping her eyes on the door.
Conclusion. Denise will likely succeed against Bernadette, with her damages reduced for her own fault. Bang Up is likely partly responsible through Denise's carelessness and its own failure to train staff and make the door safe, so the loss would be shared among Bernadette, Bang Up and Denise.
Q4Likely
Denise is in the hospital, and Leonard tells Penny they are short staffed in the shop. Penny sends her friends to work for Leonard. Mike dropped out of high school, and Penny arranged the job as a favour to her friend. Leonard does not think it is a good idea because Mike has no experience. Mike comes to work every day for a week but does not really do anything, and he causes a lot of problems. In the middle of the second week, after Mike breaks the hoist while "horsing around", Leonard tells him he can collect his cash from Penny and go home. Mike can: (a) sue for breach of the employment contract; (b) not sue, because no contract was ever formed; (c) sue Leonard for professional liability; (d) not sue, because of equitable estoppel; (e) sue for undue influence.
How to answer
Eliminate first. Professional liability (c) needs a professional who gave negligent advice, which is not Mike's situation. Undue influence (e) is an impeachment ground and nothing in the facts points to it. Equitable estoppel (d) does not stop a claim for a contract that has been formed. That leaves (a) and (b), so test the elements of formation: offer, acceptance, consideration, intention, capacity.
Answer
Conclusion. (a), as my reading; Keith will confirm at the review. Penny oversees the whole business and was a director, so she had authority to hire, and Leonard's disapproval does not undo that. Penny's offer of a job, Mike's acceptance by turning up each day, and the exchange of work for cash (consideration) formed an employment contract. The favour does not remove the intention to create legal relations, because the setting is commercial: Mike was to work for pay and did. Leonard ending the job without notice, because of horseplay in the second week, is then a possible breach (wrongful dismissal), subject to the argument that breaking the hoist was misconduct. Option (b) is the tempting trap: it treats "a favour" and Leonard's doubts as stopping a contract, but they do not.
Q5Likely
Mike is angry about being let go. He writes on his social media accounts that Leonard "is a liar and a cheat and is notorious for over-charging his customers". Leonard finds out when a customer asks him about it. Leonard can sue Mike for: (a) product defamation; (b) slander; (c) libel; (d) the tort of deceit; (e) fraudulent misrepresentation.
How to answer
Identify the tort first (a false statement that harms reputation is defamation), then choose the right form: libel is defamation in written or other permanent form, slander is spoken or fleeting. Dismiss the options that involve inducing someone to act on a false statement.
Answer
Conclusion. (c). The posts accuse Leonard of dishonesty and overcharging, which lowers a reasonable person's opinion of him as a businessman, they name him, and they were communicated to others, so the elements of defamation are likely met. Social media posts are written and permanent, so the claim is in libel, not slander (b), which is spoken. "Product defamation" (a) is not the tort here, since the statements are about Leonard, not a product. Deceit (d) and fraudulent misrepresentation (e) concern false statements that induce someone to enter a deal, and nobody was induced to do anything. Mike's best defence would be truth (if Leonard did overcharge), and Leonard would claim general damages for harm to his reputation and special damages for any lost customers.
Topic 1: The legal system, civil versus criminal law and legal risk
Topic 1 questions are usually short, worth a few marks, and they appear inside longer problems (for example, "state the standard of proof" or "explain why this is a civil matter"). Learn these cold, because they are the cheapest marks on the paper.
Q1Very likely
Compare a civil action with a criminal prosecution under these headings: who the parties are, how the case is named, what the claimant wants, the standard of proof, and where the law mostly comes from.
How to answer
Use a two-column comparison and give an example of each. The standard of proof is the item examiners most often check.
Answer
A civil action is between two private parties and is named Plaintiff v Defendant (Jane v John). The plaintiff seeks compensation for harm. The standard is a balance of probabilities (more likely than not, about 50% plus). Most civil causes of action, such as negligence and breach of contract, come from the common law. A criminal prosecution is between the state and the accused and is named R v John. The state seeks to punish on behalf of the public. The standard is proof beyond a reasonable doubt (near certainty). Most criminal law comes from the Criminal Code. The same incident, such as a bar fight, can lead to both a prosecution and a civil tort claim.
Q2Very likely
Define each term and use it in a sentence: action, cause of action, plaintiff, defendant, damages, prima facie.
How to answer
Give a one-line definition for each and tie the sentence to a business setting.
Answer
An action is a lawsuit started in the normal course. A cause of action is the legal rule the plaintiff relies on to say they were wronged (negligence, battery, breach of contract). The plaintiff is the person suing and the defendant is the person being sued. Damages are the monetary compensation for the harm the plaintiff suffered as a result of the defendant's wrong. Prima facie means "on the face of it": a claim that looks established unless the other side answers it. Example: "The customer, as plaintiff, sued the store, as defendant, for damages under the cause of action of negligence."
Q3Likely
List the sources of law in Canada and explain how they fit together if they conflict.
How to answer
Name five sources, then explain the order. Mention Quebec.
Answer
The sources are the Constitution, legislation (federal and provincial statutes, such as the Criminal Code, the Sale of Goods Act and the Occupiers' Liability Act), common law (judge-made law that follows precedent), equity (fairness principles that supplement the common law, such as promissory estoppel and rectification) and, in Quebec, civil law rather than common law. The Constitution is supreme (constitutional supremacy), so every law must comply with it. Within the Constitution, legislatures have broad power to pass statutes (legislative supremacy), and a valid statute overrides inconsistent common law. Common law follows stare decisis, which means courts follow precedents set by higher courts.
Q4Likely
Which level of government has power over each of the following, and why does it matter? (a) banking, (b) incorporating a company with provincial objects, (c) hospitals, (d) copyright, (e) the postal service, (f) property and civil rights in the province.
How to answer
Federal powers are in section 91 of the Constitution Act and provincial powers are in section 92. The two levels are coordinate: neither is subordinate to the other.
Answer
Federal (s. 91): banking, copyright, postal service. Provincial (s. 92): incorporating a company with provincial objects, hospitals and health care, and property and civil rights in the province. It matters because a business must check which government's statute governs it. For example, the Sale of Goods Act, Statute of Frauds, Negligence Act, Occupiers' Liability Act, Employment Standards Act and Partnerships Act are provincial, while the Criminal Code, Income Tax Act, Copyright Act, Patent Act and Bankruptcy and Insolvency Act are federal.
Q5Likely
The cases Donoghue v Stevenson, City of Kamloops v Nielsen, Foakes v Beer and Hedley Byrne v Heller appear on the first-week slides. What do they have in common, and why does that matter?
How to answer
Think about what kind of law these cases create and how later courts treat them.
Answer
They are all common-law precedents, meaning judge-made rules. Under stare decisis a court follows the earlier decision of a higher court on similar facts, so lawyers argue by analogy to these cases. This is why, in an IRAC answer, you cite the case that supplies the test and then compare your facts to it.
Q6Possible
Name the three branches of government and the three forms of dispute resolution.
How to answer
The branches are about making, carrying out and interpreting law. The forms of justice are the ways disputes are resolved.
Answer
The legislative branch (elected members who debate and make laws), the executive branch (the Crown, prime minister or premier and Cabinet, who operate and enforce the laws) and the judiciary (judges who interpret and apply the laws). Disputes are resolved through the courts, alternative dispute resolution (mediation or arbitration) and administrative tribunals (such as the Human Rights Tribunal or the Ontario Securities Commission).
Q7Possible
Explain constitutional supremacy and legislative supremacy, and say which prevails in a conflict.
How to answer
Rank them and give a one-line reason.
Answer
Constitutional supremacy means every law must comply with the Constitution, so a statute that breaks the Constitution can be struck down. Legislative supremacy means a legislature has wide discretion to make any law so long as it is constitutional. If they conflict, constitutional supremacy prevails.
Q8Likely
What are the three goals of this course's approach to legal risk, and what does IDAC (also called IRAC or CRAC) stand for?
How to answer
The course goals are to identify, reduce and cope. IDAC is the method used to show you can do that on paper.
Answer
The goals are (1) to assess potential legal risks in a business career, (2) to reduce legal risk through preventive measures, and (3) to devise strategies to cope with legal issues when they arise. The method is Issue (identify the legal risk), Rule (explain the governing principle), Application (apply it to the facts with strengths and weaknesses) and Conclusion (predict the outcome and recommend a course of action that minimises risk). The conclusion must follow logically from the application.
Q9Likely
A new café owner asks what legal risks the business faces and how to reduce them. Give a short risk-management answer covering tort and contract risks.
How to answer
This is a Topic 1 application question. Identify risks, link each to the rule, then give a preventive step. Keep it to the topics in scope.
Answer
Tort risks include negligence (a customer slips on a wet floor or is burned by hot coffee; the owner owes a duty of care and is an occupier under the Occupiers' Liability Act, which requires reasonable care to see that entrants are reasonably safe), product liability (contaminated food, failure to warn about allergens), vicarious liability for staff torts in the course of employment, and misrepresentation (false claims about ingredients). Contract risks include invitation-to-treat wording on menus and signs, unclear supply terms, and verbal promises that are not enforceable. Preventive steps are written safety procedures and staff training, warning signs, allergen labelling, insurance, written standard-form terms with onerous clauses clearly drawn to the customer's attention (Tilden), and written supplier contracts reviewed before signing. If something goes wrong, document the incident, report to the insurer and settle early where the risk of losing is high.
Q10Likely
Explain the difference between law and ethics and name the two ethical biases covered in the Ethics Unwrapped videos.
How to answer
Define each bias in one clause and give a business example.
Answer
Laws are the rules a society uses to maintain order; ethics are the moral principles that guide how people choose to act, and conduct can be legal but unethical. Without attention to both, a company risks financial and reputational loss. Incrementalism is sliding into unethical behaviour through small steps that each seem harmless but together amount to a serious moral compromise (for example, an accountant who first rounds a figure, then hides a small error, then backdates a document). Overconfidence bias is overestimating your own knowledge, ability or ethics, so you take more risk and do not guard against mistakes (for example, an owner who is sure nothing will go wrong and skips a safety inspection).
Torts I: intentional torts and their defences
Intentional torts are tested two ways: short questions asking for the elements, and fact patterns where several torts overlap (for example, a bouncer who grabs, holds and accuses a patron). In every intentional tort the defendant must intend the act, the plaintiff carries the burden of proving every element, and once the elements are shown the burden shifts to the defendant to prove a defence.
Q1Very likely
What is a tort, what is its purpose, and how does it differ from a crime and from negligence?
How to answer
Define it, state the aim (compensation), the standard of proof, and place it on the conduct scale from accidental to negligent to intentional.
Answer
A tort is a wrongful act done to the person, property or rights of another that is recognised in law and causes harm. A tort claim is between private parties and its purpose is compensation, putting the injured party back in the position they would have been in without the tort, usually through money damages. The standard of proof is a balance of probabilities. A crime is an offence against the state, punished and proved beyond a reasonable doubt. The conduct scale runs from accidental, to negligent (careless), to intentional. Intentional torts such as battery and trespass are actionable per se, meaning the plaintiff can sue even without loss, but may receive only nominal damages (for example $1). Negligence is not actionable per se: no damage, no negligence.
Q2Very likely
State the elements of assault and of battery, and explain how they differ.
How to answer
They are two separate torts usually found together ("trespass to the person"). Assault is about apprehension; battery is about contact.
Answer
Assault requires (1) an intentional (2) threat that is (3) likely to cause a reasonable apprehension of imminent physical harm (4) against a person or an identifiable group. No contact is needed. Battery requires (1) an intentional (2) application of unlawful force (3) without consent. A person who raises a fist and swings but misses commits assault; if the fist lands, battery is also committed.
Q3Very likely
At a bar, Dana shouts "I'll smash your face!" and swings a bottle at Eli but misses. Eli shoves Dana to the ground and she breaks her wrist. Advise each party on potential tort liability.
How to answer
Identify two possible claims (Eli v Dana for assault; Dana v Eli for battery). Then spend most of your time on Eli's defence of self-defence: was force necessary and proportionate?
Answer
Issue. Is Dana liable to Eli for assault, and is Eli liable to Dana for battery?
Rule. Assault: intentional threat likely to cause reasonable apprehension of imminent harm. Battery: intentional application of unlawful force without consent. Self-defence: the defendant must show that force was necessary, that he reasonably believed there was a risk of harm or immediate danger, and that the force was commensurate with the harm being deterred (no excessive force).
Application. Dana's words and the swing were intentional and would cause a reasonable person to fear imminent harm, so assault is made out (and battery only if she had hit him). Eli's shove was an intentional application of force without Dana's consent, so prima facie battery. Eli will argue self-defence: a bottle swung at his head created an immediate danger and a shove is a proportionate response. Dana will argue that he could have stepped back, and that breaking her wrist was excessive. A court is likely to accept that a shove is a reasonable response to a bottle attack, though the injury shows the force needs scrutiny.
Conclusion. Dana is likely liable for assault; Eli's battery is probably excused by self-defence. Business risk lesson: bar owners should train staff on de-escalation and not serve patrons to the point of aggression.
Q4Likely
State the elements of trespass to land and give a business example.
How to answer
Intentional entry without consent. Mention that damage is not required but can be claimed.
Answer
Trespass requires (1) an intentional (2) entry onto the property of another (3) without consent. The owner can sue even without damage and can recover for any damage caused. Example: a delivery driver walks through a restricted construction site after being told not to enter.
Q5Likely
A supervisor, to punish a worker, falsely tells him his daughter has been killed in a car accident. The worker is later diagnosed by his doctor with a serious anxiety disorder. Can he sue for intentional infliction of mental suffering?
How to answer
Use the three-part Boucher v Wal-Mart test and apply each element.
Answer
Issue. Is the supervisor liable for intentional infliction of mental suffering?
Rule. From Boucher v Wal-Mart Canada Corp., 2014 ONCA 419: (1) the defendant's conduct was flagrant and outrageous; (2) the conduct was calculated to harm the plaintiff; (3) the conduct caused the plaintiff to suffer a visible and provable illness. The defendant must intend to cause harm, though not necessarily the exact harm that follows.
Application. Telling a parent his child has died as punishment is flagrant and outrageous. It was done deliberately to cause distress, so it was calculated to harm. A physician's diagnosis of a serious anxiety disorder is a visible and provable illness, and the false news caused it. The supervisor may argue it was a joke, but the stated purpose was punishment, which shows intent.
Conclusion. The worker will likely succeed. The employer is likely vicariously liable too if the supervisor acted in the course of employment, and should discipline the supervisor and train managers.
Q6Very likely
A store security guard suspects a customer of shoplifting and keeps her locked in a back room for 40 minutes until the police arrive. No stolen goods are found. Advise the customer.
How to answer
Apply the three elements of false imprisonment from Collis v Toronto Police Services Board. Remember confinement need not be physical, and consider the defence of legal authority and whether the store had lawful justification.
Answer
Issue. Can the customer sue the store and guard for false imprisonment?
Rule. From Collis v Toronto Police Services Board, 2007 CanLII 36634: (1) an intentional (2) total confinement of a person against her will (3) without lawful justification. Confinement may be psychological as well as physical. A defendant who acted with legal authority has a defence, and it is not false imprisonment if police lay charges after an independent decision.
Application. The guard intended to hold her, and a locked room is a total confinement against her will. The store will rely on legal authority or reasonable suspicion, but the facts show the goods were not found and there was no lawful basis beyond suspicion. The 40 minutes before police arrived is the key period: the independent decision by the police did not begin until they arrived.
Conclusion. The customer will likely succeed for the time she was held before the police acted unless the store can prove a lawful justification. Risk-management advice: train guards on the limits of their authority, call police promptly rather than detaining, and keep incident records. The employer is vicariously liable for the guard's act in the course of employment.
Q7Likely
State the four elements of malicious prosecution and apply them: a competitor tells police that a rival stole equipment, knowing the claim is false. The police lay charges, which are later withdrawn.
How to answer
Curley v Taafe supplies four elements. Notice that the first is that the proceeding was initiated by the defendant, which requires that the defendant undermined the independence of the police investigation.
Answer
Rule. From Curley v Taafe, 2019 ONCA 368: (1) the proceeding was initiated by the defendant; (2) it terminated in favour of the plaintiff; (3) it was undertaken without reasonable and probable cause; (4) it was motivated by malice or a primary purpose other than carrying the law into effect.
Application. (1) The competitor supplied the false information and presumably withheld exculpatory facts, so the competitor initiated the proceeding rather than the police acting independently. (2) The withdrawal of the charges is a termination in the rival's favour. (3) The competitor knew the claim was false, so there was no reasonable and probable cause. (4) The goal was to hurt a business rival, which is an improper purpose. Conclusion. The rival will likely succeed.
Q8Very likely
A company emails all 50 staff saying that a former employee, Sam, "stole from the till". The statement is false. Can Sam sue, and what defences might the company raise?
How to answer
List the three elements of defamation, distinguish libel from slander, then go through the defences: truth, privilege and responsible communication on matters of public interest.
Answer
Issue. Is the company liable in defamation to Sam?
Rule. Defamation is the publication of untrue statements that injure a person's reputation; spoken is slander and written is libel. The plaintiff must show (1) the material is defamatory, meaning it would lower his reputation in the eyes of a reasonable person; (2) it refers to him; and (3) it was communicated to at least one other person. Defences are truth (justification), qualified or absolute privilege (for example evidence in court, or an employment reference given without malice), and responsible communication on matters of public interest (Grant v Torstar Corp., 2009 SCC 61).
Application. Calling Sam a thief lowers his reputation, the email names him, and it was sent to 50 people, so all three elements are met and, being written, it is libel. Truth is a complete defence, but the statement is false, so it fails. Qualified privilege protects statements made without malice on a proper occasion, such as a reference to a prospective employer, but telling the whole staff goes beyond any need to know. Responsible communication on a matter of public interest does not fit an internal staff email about a former till worker.
Conclusion. Sam will likely succeed. Risk-management advice: never make accusations in mass emails; check facts first; keep personnel matters confidential.
Q9Very likely
List the defences available to intentional torts and explain each in one or two sentences.
How to answer
Remember the burden shifts to the defendant. Cover consent, self-defence, necessity, involuntariness, incapacity and legal authority.
Answer
Consent: if the plaintiff consented, there is no tort, but the consent must be informed and a person cannot consent to death or severe bodily harm. Self-defence: reasonable protection of oneself, a third party or property, available only if the defendant reasonably believed there was a risk of harm or immediate danger and used no more force than was proportionate. Necessity: there was no other option but to commit the tort, for example pulling down a building to stop a fire spreading. Involuntariness: intentional torts must be voluntary, so a reflex or seizure is not a tort. Incapacity: an intentional tort needs the mental capacity to form intent. Legal authority: the act was authorised by law, for example a police arrest that would otherwise be false imprisonment.
Q10Likely
A bar's bouncer, while working, punches a patron who is arguing. Is the bar liable, and on what basis?
How to answer
This is vicarious liability. Show the act was committed in the course of employment.
Answer
The bouncer is directly liable for battery. The bar, as employer, is generally jointly and severally liable for torts committed by an employee in the course of employment, so the patron can sue both. The bouncer's job was to control patrons, so the act is closely connected to his work. The bar may also be negligent if it failed to train or supervise him. The employee may in turn be liable to the employer.
Torts II: negligence and the defences to negligence
Negligence is the single most likely tort topic on the midterm. Keith's assigned practice problem (Chapter 4 Case Problem 2) is a negligence problem, the negligence slides spend the most time on the test, and almost every injury hypothetical uses it. Always present the four elements in order, and always finish with defences and vicarious liability.
Q1Very likely
Define negligence and state the test a court applies, including the standard of proof.
How to answer
Give the definition, the four elements and the standard in one tight paragraph, then name the leading case.
Answer
Negligence is the careless causing of harm to the person or property of another. The plaintiff must prove on a balance of probabilities that (1) the defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care, (2) the defendant breached that duty by falling below the standard of care, (3) the defendant's breach caused the plaintiff's loss (causation, both factual and legal), and (4) the plaintiff suffered damage. Donoghue v Stevenson is the foundation case. Negligence is not actionable per se: without proven loss there is no claim.
Q2Very likely
Explain how a court decides whether a duty of care exists, naming the leading cases.
How to answer
Start with the neighbour principle, then give the two-stage Kamloops test. Say that the Donoghue phrase is not itself a legal test.
Answer
In Donoghue v Stevenson, [1932] A.C. 562, Lord Atkin said you must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour, meaning persons so closely and directly affected that you ought reasonably to have them in contemplation. That statement is a guiding idea, not the test. The test in the course is City of Kamloops v Nielsen, [1984] 2 S.C.R. 2: (1) is there a sufficiently close relationship between the parties that, in the reasonable contemplation of the defendant, carelessness on its part might cause damage to that person (reasonable foreseeability and proximity); and (2) if so, are there considerations that ought to negative or limit (a) the scope of the duty, (b) the class of persons to whom it is owed or (c) the damages to which a breach may give rise (policy considerations). Textbook note, not on MyLS: Cooper v Hobart (2001 SCC) restates the same two stages as foreseeability plus proximity, then residual policy considerations. Analogy case: Menow v Honsberger and Jordan House, where an innkeeper who ejected an intoxicated customer later struck by a car owed him a duty.
Q3Very likely
What standard of care applies to an ordinary adult, a child, a professional and a specialist?
How to answer
The baseline is the reasonable ordinary person; then raise or lower the standard by the defendant's category.
Answer
The general standard is that of the reasonable ordinary person. A professional (doctor, lawyer, accountant) is held to the standard of a reasonable and competent member of that profession, and professionals must also avoid conflicts of interest. A specialist is held to a higher standard than a generalist, for example a heart surgeon compared with a family doctor performing heart surgery. A child is measured against a reasonable child of the same age, unless the child is engaged in an adult activity. Foreseeability of the harm and the cost of precautions are weighed in deciding whether the standard was breached.
Q4Very likely
Explain factual causation and remoteness, and say how each is tested.
How to answer
But-for test first, then foreseeability of the type of harm; mention the case for remoteness. Note that the defendant need not be the only cause.
Answer
Factual causation asks whether the damage was in fact caused by the breach. The but-for test is whether the injury would have occurred but for the defendant's conduct; if not, the conduct is a cause. The defendant need not be the sole cause, it is enough to be a cause. Where proof is hard (for example in manufacturing cases) the plaintiff can use circumstantial evidence or res ipsa loquitur. Legal causation, or remoteness, asks whether the harm was too far removed from the conduct: the fact that harm of this kind could occur, though not the exact damage, must have been foreseeable at the time of the tort (Overseas Tankship v Morts Dock, The Wagon Mound, [1961] A.C. 388). Textbook note: Mustapha v Culligan (2008 SCC) applies foreseeability to psychological injury in a person of ordinary fortitude.
Q5Likely
What are the three types of damages in tort, and when is each awarded?
How to answer
Define each and give an example.
Answer
Special damages are quantifiable pecuniary losses (lost sales, medical bills). General damages are not easily quantifiable, such as pain and suffering. Punitive damages are rare and punish egregious conduct rather than compensate.
Q6Very likely
A bar ejected four men who had been fighting. A short time later it ejected another customer, who had not been involved. Outside, he was attacked and seriously injured. Is the bar liable in negligence? (This is Keith's assigned Chapter 4 Case Problem 2, based on Murphy v Little Memphis Cabaret.)
How to answer
Write a full four-element IRAC. Cite Menow for duty, argue foreseeability for breach, apply but-for for causation, and take the bar's best counter-argument seriously.
Answer
Issue. Should the bar and its staff be liable in negligence to the customer?
Rule. The plaintiff must show on a balance of probabilities that (a) the defendant owed a duty of care, (b) it breached the standard of care, (c) the breach caused the harm, and (d) actual damage occurred.
Application. Duty: a restaurant or bar owes a duty of care to its customers; in Menow v Honsberger and Jordan House the Supreme Court held that an innkeeper who ejected an intoxicated customer later hit by a motorist owed him a duty. Standard: it was foreseeable that ejecting a customer shortly after ejecting four aggressors was likely to expose him to harm, so the bar probably fell below the standard of care. The bar will argue that it also owed a duty to other patrons and that ejecting him may have been necessary if he was a risk, but there is no evidence he caused the fight. Causation: but for the ejection into that situation, he was unlikely to have been harmed. Damages: serious physical injuries.
Conclusion. The bar and its employees are likely liable, and the bar is vicariously liable for staff acting in the course of their employment, as in Murphy v Little Memphis Cabaret (ONCA). The bar should adopt safer ejection procedures: call a taxi or police, escort patrons, and keep records.
Q7Very likely
A shopper slips on a spill that the store had not cleaned for an hour. She was texting and wearing slippery shoes. What effect does her own conduct have on her claim?
How to answer
This is contributory negligence, a partial defence. State the three ways it can arise and the effect (apportionment under the Negligence Act).
Answer
Contributory negligence is a partial defence where the plaintiff contributed to her own injury. It arises when the plaintiff (a) contributed to the incident that caused the injury, (b) exposed herself to a risk of injury, or (c) failed to take reasonable steps to minimise the injury after it happened (mitigation). Here the store likely breached its duty by leaving the spill, but the shopper's inattention contributed to the fall. The court does not dismiss the claim; it apportions fault, so her damages are reduced by her share of responsibility, for example 30%.
Q8Very likely
A trampoline park customer signed a waiver and was injured doing a backflip when a trampoline's frame was faulty. Can the park rely on voluntary assumption of risk?
How to answer
This defence is a complete bar. It needs an inherently risky activity and knowledge of the specific risk. Distinguish the risks assumed from the risk the defendant created.
Answer
Voluntary assumption of risk is a full defence (like consent in intentional torts). The defendant must show the plaintiff engaged in an inherently risky activity, knew of the risks and voluntarily assumed those specific risks. It can be shown through (1) an express contract exempting the defendant from legal responsibility (a waiver), (2) express consent to run the risk without a contract, or (3) consent inferred from the facts. The park will point to the waiver, but jumping on a trampoline is risky only in the ordinary way; a defective frame is a different risk that the customer did not know about and did not assume, so the defence probably fails (and the waiver may not clearly cover it). The park should therefore inspect and maintain equipment, and draw the key risks clearly to customers' attention.
Q9Likely
What is ex turpi causa and how likely is it to succeed?
How to answer
Define it in one sentence and say it is rare.
Answer
Ex turpi causa bars a plaintiff from recovering if the injury occurred while the plaintiff was engaged in an illegal activity. The lecture slides say it is rare and not to be counted on, so raise it only as a secondary argument where the facts show the plaintiff was committing a crime when hurt.
Q10Very likely
A delivery driver, texting while driving a company van, hits a cyclist who was not wearing a helmet and suffers a head injury. Advise the cyclist about who is liable and what defences exist.
How to answer
Do a full negligence analysis against the driver, add vicarious liability for the employer, then address contributory negligence for the helmet.
Answer
Issue. Is the driver, and are the driver's employer, liable in negligence to the cyclist?
Rule. The four negligence elements (duty, breach of the standard of care, causation by the but-for test and remoteness, damages). An employer is generally jointly and severally liable for the torts of an employee committed in the course of employment. Contributory negligence, including failure to mitigate, reduces damages in proportion to the plaintiff's fault.
Application. Duty: a driver owes a duty to other road users, including cyclists, whose presence is foreseeable. Breach: a reasonable driver does not text while driving, so the driver fell below the standard. Causation: but for the distraction the collision would likely not have happened, and head injuries are a foreseeable type of harm. Damages: medical costs and lost income (special damages) and pain and suffering (general damages). The driver was on a delivery, so the employer is vicariously liable and the driver also remains personally liable. The employer might argue the driver was on a personal detour, but a delivery job makes this unlikely. Contributory negligence: the missing helmet did not cause the collision but may have worsened the injury, which is a failure to take reasonable steps to minimise harm, so a court may reduce damages by a share of responsibility.
Conclusion. The cyclist will likely succeed against the driver and the employer, with damages possibly reduced for the helmet. The employer should adopt and enforce a no-phone policy, review its insurance, and settle early.
Q11Likely
What do the rules on burden of proof and circumstantial evidence say about how a plaintiff proves negligence?
How to answer
The plaintiff starts with the burden; once the elements are shown, it shifts. Give a definition of circumstantial evidence.
Answer
The plaintiff must prove each element of the tort. Once the plaintiff has shown all the elements in evidence, the burden shifts to the defendant to prove it did not commit the tort or that it has a valid defence. A plaintiff may meet the burden with circumstantial evidence, which is any evidence other than eyewitness testimony to the material fact from which the court may infer a fact in issue (R v Gordon, 2017 ONSC 169). It is enough to show that the defendant's negligence was the most likely cause of the injury. Res ipsa loquitur ("the thing speaks for itself") is the doctrine often used in manufacturing cases where the cause is hard to prove directly.
Torts III: occupiers' liability, product liability, professional liability and business torts
These are applications of negligence to common business settings, so examiners like to hide them in a single hypothetical. When you see an injury on a business's premises, a defective product, or a professional's mistake, first name the specific branch, then run the negligence elements through it.
Q1Very likely
Define an occupier and state the duties an occupier owes to (a) people invited onto the premises, (b) trespassers, and (c) people who willingly assume a risk.
How to answer
Use the Occupiers' Liability Act sections the course cites (s. 3(1) and s. 4) and the key case, Schneider.
Answer
An occupier is a person who has control over the property, whether owner or tenant. Under the Occupiers' Liability Act, s. 3(1), an occupier owes a duty to take such care as is reasonable in all the circumstances to see that persons entering the premises, and their property, are reasonably safe while on the premises. A trespasser is owed a duty of general humanity: the occupier must not deliberately harm the trespasser or set traps, but otherwise the standard of care is minimal. Under s. 4, where the use of land is to encourage an activity and the entrant willingly assumes its risks, the s. 3 duty does not apply to those risks, but the occupier still must not create a danger with deliberate intent to do harm and must not act with reckless disregard for the entrant's presence (Schneider v St. Clair Region Conservation Authority, [2009] O.J. No. 3667 (C.A.), the course's key case for s. 4).
Q2Very likely
On a rainy day a customer slips on the wet tile at the entrance of a store. There was no mat and no warning sign, and she was looking at her phone. The store is rented by a corporation. Advise the customer.
How to answer
Identify the occupier, apply s. 3(1), then run duty, standard, causation and damages. Add contributory negligence for the phone and vicarious liability for staff.
Answer
Issue. Is the store liable to the customer under occupiers' liability and negligence for her fall?
Rule. An occupier (a person in control of the property, owner or tenant) owes people entering the premises a duty to take reasonable care to see that they are reasonably safe (Occupiers' Liability Act, s. 3(1)). Negligence requires duty, breach of the standard of care, causation and damages. Contributory negligence reduces damages in proportion to the plaintiff's fault.
Application. The corporation is the occupier because it controls the premises as tenant, and the customer was an invitee, so a duty is owed. A reasonable occupier foresees that rain makes entrances slippery and puts down mats, mops or warning signs; failing to do so likely breached the standard. But for the unprotected wet floor, she would probably not have fallen, and injury from a slip is a foreseeable type of harm. The store will argue that she was distracted, which is contributory negligence and could reduce her damages, but it does not remove the store's breach. If an employee was supposed to mop and did not, the store is also vicariously liable.
Conclusion. She will likely succeed, with damages possibly reduced for her inattention. The store should adopt an inspection and cleaning schedule, put out mats and warning signs, and keep logs to prove it took reasonable care.
Q3Likely
A conservation area runs a rope swing over a lake with a sign saying "Use at your own risk". A visitor swings, falls and fractures his spine because the rope was frayed. Can the occupier rely on the risk being willingly assumed?
How to answer
Use s. 4 and its limit: the occupier is not protected where it acts with reckless disregard or creates a danger deliberately. Frayed rope raises a question of whether it is a risk that the visitor assumed.
Answer
Issue. Does s. 4 of the Occupiers' Liability Act relieve the occupier of its duty?
Rule. Where land is used to encourage an activity, the entrant willingly assumes the risks of that activity and the s. 3 duty does not apply to them, but the occupier must not create a danger with deliberate intent to do harm and must not act with reckless disregard of the entrant's presence (s. 4; Schneider).
Application. The risk the visitor accepted was the ordinary risk of swinging and falling into a lake. A frayed rope is a hidden defect in the equipment that the occupier controls and knew or should have known about, not a risk he knowingly accepted. If the occupier ignored earlier warnings or complaints about the rope, that suggests reckless disregard, which s. 4 does not protect. The sign is not a complete shield.
Conclusion. The occupier probably cannot rely on s. 4 and is likely liable, unless it can show it inspected the rope and had no notice of the fraying. It should inspect equipment regularly and remove unsafe features.
Q4Likely
A teenager climbs a fence at night into a closed construction site and falls into an unmarked, uncovered pit. Advise the site owner.
How to answer
Classify the entrant as a trespasser, state the limited duty and ask whether the owner acted deliberately or recklessly.
Answer
A trespasser is owed only a duty of general humanity: the occupier must not deliberately harm the person or set traps; otherwise the standard of care is minimal. The owner did not intend the pit to injure anyone, and the site was closed and fenced, so a claim in negligence is unlikely to succeed. The teenager would have to show that the owner acted with deliberate intent or reckless disregard of the presence of trespassers (for example, if the owner knew teenagers regularly climbed the fence and did nothing). The owner should still fence, cover and mark hazards because courts look at what the occupier knew about intruders.
Q5Very likely
Explain product liability: what type of claim it is, the three basic types of defect, and the ongoing duty a manufacturer has.
How to answer
Say it is not a separate tort. It is negligence applied to a product, resting on Donoghue v Stevenson.
Answer
Product liability is based on negligence, so the plaintiff must prove duty, breach, causation and damage; it is not a separate cause of action. Donoghue v Stevenson (the snail in the ginger beer) established that a manufacturer owes a duty of care to the ultimate consumer. The three basic types are negligent design, negligent manufacture and failure to warn. The plaintiff must show that the product, as designed, manufactured or labelled, fell short of reasonable standards and that this made it dangerous and caused the harm. A manufacturer has an ongoing duty to warn about dangers, including defects discovered after sale and risks revealed by scientific or technological advances.
Q6Very likely
A mother buys a donut for her daughter at a bakery. The daughter bites into a small piece of metal and chips a tooth. The metal came from a worn blade in the bakery's mixing equipment. Advise the daughter.
How to answer
Identify negligent manufacture, apply the four elements, and note how the plaintiff proves causation when she cannot show exactly how the metal got in.
Answer
Issue. Is the bakery liable in negligence (product liability) for the daughter's injury?
Rule. Product liability is negligence applied to a product (Donoghue v Stevenson): duty of care to the consumer, breach by negligent design, manufacture or failure to warn, causation by the but-for test, and damage. A plaintiff may rely on circumstantial evidence or res ipsa loquitur where direct proof is hard.
Application. The bakery made a food product intended for consumers, so it owed the daughter a duty as the foreseeable ultimate consumer (Kamloops: sufficiently close relationship and foreseeable harm; no policy reason to limit it). A reasonable bakery inspects and maintains its equipment and checks food for foreign objects; a worn blade shedding metal suggests it fell below the standard (negligent manufacture). But for the metal in the donut her tooth would not have chipped. The bakery will say the metal could have come from elsewhere, but circumstantial evidence (the worn blade, the type of metal) makes the bakery the most likely source. Damages: dental costs and pain (special and general). The mother's purchase is irrelevant to the daughter's tort claim because she need not be a party to a contract.
Conclusion. The daughter will likely succeed. The bakery should inspect equipment, keep maintenance records and carry product liability insurance.
Q7Likely
A pharmaceutical company learns after sale that its sleeping pill can cause dangerous sleepwalking but does not update the label. A patient is injured. Is the company liable?
How to answer
This is failure to warn. Stress the ongoing duty.
Answer
The company owes a duty to consumers. Once it learned of the risk it had an ongoing duty to warn about discovered defects and new scientific knowledge. Failing to update the label fell below the standard of a reasonable manufacturer, and but for the missing warning the patient could have avoided the risk or sought other treatment. The company is likely liable in negligence for failure to warn.
Q8Likely
A family doctor with no heart-surgery training agrees to perform heart surgery and makes a mistake. What standard of care applies, and why does it matter?
How to answer
Describe the professional standard and the specialist's higher standard, and mention conflicts of interest.
Answer
Professionals are measured against the reasonable and competent member of the profession in that specialty, and specialists are held to a higher standard than generalists (a heart surgeon has a higher standard than a family doctor doing the same operation). A person who holds out as able to do specialised work will be judged by the specialist standard. The doctor who undertakes heart surgery without the skill is likely in breach. Professionals must also avoid conflicts of interest, and a professional who breaches the standard of care and also acts in conflict may face separate claims for negligence and for breach of fiduciary duty.
Q9Likely
A competitor persuades a supplier to break its exclusive supply contract with your client by offering it a higher price. Advise your client.
How to answer
This is the tort of inducing breach of contract. Use the Redtree test and apply each element.
Answer
Issue. Is the competitor liable for inducing breach of contract?
Rule. From 1670002 Ontario Ltd v Redtree Contract Carriers Ltd, 2014 ONCA 501: (1) the defendant knew of the contract between the plaintiff and a third party, (2) the defendant intended to procure a breach, (3) the defendant's conduct caused the third party to breach, and (4) the plaintiff suffered damages.
Application. The competitor must have known of the exclusive contract (the facts must show actual knowledge, for example it was told or it saw the contract). An offer of a higher price to make the supplier switch shows intention to procure a breach, and the supplier did breach because of the offer, so causation is met. The client's lost sales are damages. The competitor may argue it merely competed fairly, but intentionally causing a breach of a known contract is not fair competition.
Conclusion. The client will likely succeed if it can prove the competitor knew of the contract. The client should keep records proving the competitor's knowledge and claim damages from both the supplier (breach of contract) and the competitor.
Q10Likely
A rival spreads false rumours and sends threatening letters to your client's customers so they stop buying, and your client loses business. Which tort fits?
How to answer
Unlawful interference with economic relations (A.I. Enterprises v Bram Enterprises). Explain that there must be an actionable wrong against a third party that intentionally causes the plaintiff economic harm.
Answer
The tort of unlawful interference with economic relations applies where the defendant commits an actionable wrong against a third party that intentionally causes the plaintiff economic harm (A.I. Enterprises Ltd v Bram Enterprises Ltd, 2014 SCC 12). Conduct is unlawful if it is actionable by the third party, or would be if the third party suffered loss. If the letters threaten customers with unlawful action (or the rumours are defamatory to them) and the rival intended to injure the client's business, the elements are likely met and the client can claim economic damages.
Q11Possible
A new coffee shop uses a name and logo almost identical to a well-known local café so customers think it is the same business. What claim does the established café have?
How to answer
Passing off. Use the three elements in Kaastra o/a Arbor-Aide v Arbor Aid Ltd.
Answer
Passing off is representing one's own goods or business as another's. The plaintiff must show (1) goodwill in its name or product, (2) deception of the public caused by the defendant's misrepresentation, and (3) actual or likely damage (Kaastra o/a Arbor-Aide v Arbor Aid Ltd, 2019 ONSC 4590). The established café's reputation is its goodwill, the near-identical name and logo mislead customers, and diverted customers cause lost sales, so passing off is likely made out.
Torts IV: misrepresentation, remedies, strict liability, fiduciary duty and ethics
This section finishes the torts topic. Misrepresentation and fiduciary duty are the most likely members of this group, because both have assigned practice problems in the answer key (Chapter 9 Case Problem 5, Chapter 26 Cases 1 and 3), and the ethics videos are required viewing and part of the assignment.
Q1Very likely
Compare innocent, negligent and fraudulent misrepresentation in terms of state of mind, whether a duty of care is needed, and remedy.
How to answer
Use a table. State that a representation must be a statement of fact, not opinion, and that omissions are not misrepresentation unless there is a duty to disclose.
Answer
A misrepresentation is a statement, written, verbal or by action, made during negotiation that turns out to be false and on which the other party reasonably relies to their detriment.
Innocent
Negligent
Fraudulent
State of mind
honestly believed true
honestly believed true but careless in checking
knew it was false or showed reckless disregard for the truth
Duty of care needed
no special relationship needed
requires a special relationship or professional duty of care
no special relationship needed (anyone who lies to induce a contract)
Remedy
rescission (cancelling the contract)
damages in negligence plus the option to rescind
full damages (tort of deceit), rescission and possibly punitive damages
Opinions are not statements of fact, except that an expert's opinion is treated as fact. A silence or omission is not misrepresentation unless a duty of good faith or disclosure is owed (a fiduciary, a director to the corporation, a partner, an insured to the insurer) or there is a latent defect; otherwise the rule is caveat emptor (buyer beware).
Q2Very likely
An accounting firm carelessly prepares financial statements for a client and knows they will be given to a specific bank to support a loan. The bank lends $500,000, relying on the statements, and loses money. Can the bank sue the firm?
How to answer
This is negligent misrepresentation, and it is also a claim for pure economic loss (no one was physically harmed). Use the six-part Hercules test, and discuss the policy limit of indeterminate liability.
Answer
Issue. Is the accounting firm liable to the bank for negligent misrepresentation?
Rule. In negligence a plaintiff generally cannot recover pure economic loss, but negligent misrepresentation was developed to allow recovery (Hedley Byrne & Co v Heller & Partners, [1964] A.C. 465). The test from Hercules Management Ltd v Ernst & Young (1997), 146 D.L.R. (4th) 577 is: (1) a statement was made; (2) it was false; (3) the maker owed the hearer a duty of care, subject to policy considerations that may limit liability, one of which is indeterminate liability (Deloitte & Touche v Livent Inc., 2017 SCC 63: temporal, claimant and value indeterminacy); (4) the hearer reasonably acted on the statement; (5) the statement fell below the standard of care; and (6) the hearer suffered a loss as a result.
Application. The financial statements contained a false statement, and the firm was careless in preparing them (below the standard of a reasonable accountant). A duty of care is likely owed because the firm knew the specific bank and the specific purpose, so the liability is not indeterminate: the claimant is known, the use is known and the amount at risk is limited to the loan. The bank reasonably relied on professionally prepared statements and lost money because of it. The firm may say that it prepared the statements for its client, not for the bank, and that the bank should have done its own checks, which could support a contributory-negligence argument.
Conclusion. The bank will likely succeed. Accountants should state in writing who may rely on their work and for what purpose, and carry professional liability insurance.
Q3Likely
State the elements of fraudulent misrepresentation and the extra remedies it brings.
How to answer
The difference from negligent misrepresentation is the defendant's knowledge, and the remedies are wider.
Answer
(1) a statement was made; (2) it was false; (3) the defendant knew it was false (or was reckless as to its truth); (4) the hearer reasonably acted on it; and (5) the hearer suffered a loss as a result. The plaintiff can claim full damages in the tort of deceit, rescind the contract, and in a suitable case obtain punitive damages. No special relationship or duty of care is needed because anyone who lies to induce a contract commits the tort.
Q4Likely
A seller honestly but wrongly tells a buyer that a used boat has a new motor, and the buyer relies on this to buy the boat. The seller did not check the facts carelessly; he was told so by the previous owner. What is the buyer's remedy?
How to answer
Classify by state of mind (honest and not careless) and match the remedy.
Answer
This is innocent misrepresentation: the statement was false but the seller honestly believed it and was not careless. The remedy is rescission (cancelling the contract and returning the parties to their pre-contract positions), not damages. If the seller had been careless in checking, the claim would be negligent misrepresentation (damages plus option to rescind), and if he knew it was false, fraudulent misrepresentation (full damages and possibly punitive damages).
Q5Likely
What are the three types of tort damages, what is the purpose of damages in tort, and what is an "actionable per se" tort?
How to answer
Keep to the three categories in the lecture notes and the purpose of compensation.
Answer
The purpose is compensation, to put the plaintiff in the position she would have been in without the tort. Special damages are quantifiable losses (lost sales), general damages are not quantifiable (pain and suffering), and punitive damages punish egregious conduct and are rare. An intentional tort such as battery or trespass is actionable per se, meaning the plaintiff can sue without proof of loss but may receive only nominal damages (for example $1). Negligence is not actionable per se.
Q6Likely
A delivery person visiting a house is bitten by the occupant's dog after teasing it. The owner had never known the dog to bite. Is the owner liable?
How to answer
Strict liability under the Dog Owners' Liability Act, s. 2. The owner's lack of knowledge is irrelevant, but the plaintiff's own fault reduces damages.
Answer
Issue. Is the owner liable for the bite under strict liability?
Rule. Strict liability means a defendant is liable if the wrongful act occurs regardless of fault, usually under statute. Under s. 2 of Ontario's Dog Owners' Liability Act the owner of a dog is liable for damages from a bite or attack on another person; where there is more than one owner, they are jointly and severally liable; and liability does not depend on knowledge of the dog's propensity or on fault or negligence by the owner, but the court must reduce damages in proportion to the plaintiff's fault or negligence.
Application. The dog bit another person, so the owner is liable even though the dog had no history. The delivery person's teasing contributed to the attack, so damages will be reduced in proportion to his fault.
Conclusion. The owner is liable, with damages reduced for the teasing. Other strict-liability torts include nuisance (private nuisance is interference with an occupier's use and enjoyment of land; public nuisance interferes with lawful use of public lands) and the rule in Rylands v Fletcher, under which a person is liable when something inherently dangerous escapes from their property.
Q7Very likely
Define a fiduciary, state what a fiduciary owes, and explain the two ways a fiduciary duty arises, including the ad hoc test.
How to answer
Give the two duties, then the categories, then the three-part Frame v Smith test. State that breach of fiduciary duty and breach of the standard of care are separate claims.
Answer
A fiduciary is someone in a special relationship of trust to another, such as a parent, a doctor, a trustee or a director. A fiduciary must (1) put the beneficiary's interest ahead of their own and (2) avoid conflicts of interest. The duty can arise categorically, in relationships where it always exists (lawyer to client, doctor to patient, director to corporation), or ad hoc, where all three parts of the test in Frame v Smith, [1987] SCR 99 are met: (1) the fiduciary has scope for the exercise of some discretion or power; (2) the fiduciary can unilaterally exercise that power so as to affect the beneficiary's legal or practical interests; and (3) the beneficiary is peculiarly vulnerable to, or at the mercy of, the fiduciary. A breach of fiduciary duty is separate from negligence, so a professional can be liable for either or both.
Q8Very likely
Kristen is a director of a corporation. She recommends that the corporation lease space in a building she owns, without disclosing her interest or getting permission. The other two directors, Jim and Ashley, learn of this later. Advise the corporation. (This is Chapter 26 Case 1 in Keith's answer key.)
How to answer
Identify a categorical fiduciary relationship (director to corporation), the conflict of interest, the breach and the remedy of rescission plus disgorgement.
Answer
Issue. Did Kristen breach her fiduciary duty, and can the lease be undone?
Rule. A director owes the corporation a fiduciary duty (Ontario Business Corporations Act, s. 134(1)) to put the corporation's interest first and to avoid conflicts of interest. A fiduciary who profits from a conflict must disgorge the profits.
Application. A director is a categorical fiduciary. Kristen recommended a lease on her own property without disclosing her personal interest or obtaining approval, so she acted in a conflict of interest and not in the corporation's best interest. Jim and Ashley form a quorum of the board and could vote to rescind the lease.
Conclusion. Kristen breached her fiduciary duty. The lease can likely be rescinded and she is liable for any expenses or profits she earned (disgorgement).
Q9Very likely
Slater, a director of Lockley Quarries Ltd., hears from an old friend (not in his capacity as a director) about a gravel pit for sale, the kind of property Lockley is seeking. He says nothing and buys half of it for himself. Advise a minority shareholder. (This is Chapter 26 Case 3 in Keith's answer key.)
How to answer
Apply the corporate-opportunity doctrine. Consider the counter-argument that the pit was in a different line of business and the shareholder's remedy (derivative action).
Answer
Issue. Did Slater breach his fiduciary duty by taking a corporate opportunity?
Rule. A director or officer cannot take a corporate opportunity for himself; it does not matter whether the company would have taken it, or whether he came across it in his capacity as director; the duty can survive for a reasonable time after leaving the company; a breaching fiduciary must disgorge profits.
Application. The gravel pit is the kind of property Lockley was seeking, so it was a corporate opportunity. Slater had a duty to disclose it to the board and, if directed, to try to acquire it for Lockley. By keeping it secret and buying it himself he put himself in a conflict of interest. His best counter-argument is that the pit was in a different line of business, but the facts say the company was looking for this kind of property.
Conclusion. Slater likely breached his fiduciary duty. The minority shareholder can bring a derivative action on behalf of the corporation, and the corporation is likely entitled to disgorgement of Slater's profits.
Q10Very likely
Define incrementalism and overconfidence bias and apply them: an office manager first rounds expense claims up, later approves her own claims, and finally files a false claim. She says she is sure she will never get caught.
How to answer
Define each bias in one clause, point to the facts for each, and link them to legal risk. If asked for "ethics", ground your judgement in a recognised principle rather than saying "this is bad".
Answer
Incrementalism is the tendency to slide into unethical conduct through small steps that individually seem harmless but together amount to a serious moral compromise. The manager's gradual progression from rounding up to approving her own claims to a false claim is a textbook example, because each step normalised the next. Overconfidence bias is overestimating your own abilities, knowledge or chances of success, which leads to risk-taking and poor decisions. Her certainty that she will not be caught is overconfidence. Both increase legal risk, because the false claim may amount to fraud or breach of a fiduciary or employment duty. Law and ethics differ: some of her earlier steps may have been lawful but still unethical. A preventive step is clear rules with independent approval of claims and regular audits.
Contract formation I: offer, invitation to treat and acceptance
Any contract fact pattern starts with the question "was a contract formed?", so you answer these formation questions before anything else. Keith's assigned practice problem for this part (Chapter 6 Case Problem 3, the Aristo Condos problem) is in this section.
Q1Very likely
What is a contract, and what are the elements needed to form one?
How to answer
Define it, separate the three core elements from the four additional ones, and explain how a contract differs from a gift.
Answer
A contract is a promise, or set of promises, that the law will enforce, which distinguishes it from a mere promise or gift. Three core elements create a contract: (1) offer, (2) acceptance and (3) consideration. Four additional matters are considered in deciding whether a contract was formed and should be enforced: (4) intention to create legal relations, (5) capacity, (6) legality and (7) certainty of terms. A contract that fails to form is void (it never existed); a contract that exists but can be undone by one party is voidable.
Q2Very likely
Distinguish an offer from an invitation to treat, give examples of each, and say why it matters.
How to answer
Define an offer, then state that an invitation to treat only invites others to make offers.
Answer
An offer is a tentative promise made by one party, subject to a condition or containing a request of the other, that is definite and certain, communicated to the intended recipient and intended to be binding as soon as it is accepted. An invitation to treat is only an invitation for others to make an offer. Typical invitations to treat are "for sale" signs, store advertisements and flyers, and items on shelves with prices. It matters because the party making the offer is the one who can be bound by acceptance; with an invitation to treat, the customer makes the offer at the cash and the store decides whether to accept. (Textbook note, not on MyLS: Pharmaceutical Society v Boots is the classic case on shelf displays.)
Q3Very likely
A store shelf shows a camera at $104 when the regular price is $1,040. A customer takes it to the cash and demands to buy it at $104. The cashier refuses. Is the store bound to sell?
How to answer
Identify the shelf display as an invitation to treat and walk through who makes the offer and who accepts. Add the mistake angle in one sentence.
Answer
Issue. Was a contract formed at $104?
Rule. A contract needs offer, acceptance and consideration. A shelf display with a price is an invitation to treat, so the customer makes the offer at the till and the store may accept or reject it.
Application. The shelf tag invited offers; it was not an offer. The customer's request to buy at $104 was the offer, and the cashier rejected it, so there was no acceptance and no contract. The customer may argue the store is bound by its price, but that would turn every display into a binding offer, which the law does not do. The price is also an obvious typographical error that a reasonable bystander would recognise, which gives the store a second argument that any contract could be set aside for mistake (see the setting-aside section).
Conclusion. No contract. The store should correct its price tags and train staff on pricing errors.
Q4Very likely
A seller offers a used car for $10,000. The buyer replies "I will give you $9,000." The seller says no. The buyer then says "Fine, I accept your $10,000 offer." Is there a contract?
How to answer
Define a counter-offer and its effect on the original offer.
Answer
Issue. Can the buyer still accept the original offer?
Rule. Acceptance must be final and unqualified consent to the terms of the offer. A reply that changes the terms is a counter-offer, which rejects the original offer and creates a new offer that the first party can accept or reject.
Application. The $9,000 reply changed the price, so it was a counter-offer. It rejected the $10,000 offer, which therefore no longer existed. The buyer's later "I accept" was a new offer to buy at $10,000, which the seller is free to accept or refuse.
Conclusion. There is no contract unless the seller now accepts the buyer's new offer.
Q5Very likely
A farmer texts a buyer "I'll sell you 50 tonnes of wheat at $300 a tonne." The buyer replies with a thumbs-up emoji. The farmer later says no contract was made. Who is right?
How to answer
Acceptance can be by words or conduct and must be communicated. Cite South West Terminal v Achter Land.
Answer
Issue. Is a thumbs-up emoji a valid acceptance?
Rule. Acceptance is final, unqualified consent to the offer's terms, and it must be communicated to the offeror by words or conduct. A thumbs-up emoji can be a valid acceptance (South West Terminal Ltd v Achter Land, 2023 SKKB 116).
Application. The farmer's text was a definite and certain offer with quantity and price. The buyer's emoji, in the context of an ongoing exchange, communicated agreement to the terms and was a way the offeror would reasonably understand acceptance. The farmer may argue that an emoji is ambiguous, but the court looked at what a reasonable person would take from the exchange.
Conclusion. A contract was likely formed. Business advice: confirm deals in clear words, and do not use emojis for anything you do not mean to be binding.
Q6Very likely
On Monday Ana offers to sell her boat to Raj and says the offer is open until Friday at 5 pm. On Wednesday Ana sells the boat to Sam, and on Thursday at 9 am she emails Raj to say the offer is withdrawn. Raj reads the email at 10 am and replies at 8 pm that evening: "I accept." What is the legal position?
How to answer
Say when an offer ends, how it can be revoked and the role of an option contract or a deadline. Write the answer carefully because the dates matter.
Answer
Issue. Was the offer still open when Raj accepted?
Rule. An offeror may revoke an offer at any time before acceptance, unless the offeree paid for the offer to be kept open (an option contract) or it was made under seal. An offer also lapses at the end of any time limit it sets. Revocation must be communicated to the offeree to be effective.
Application. Nothing shows that Raj paid to keep the offer open, so the Friday deadline did not stop Ana from revoking it. Ana communicated the revocation at 9 am Thursday, and Raj read it at 10 am, so the offer ended before his acceptance at 8 pm. Raj may argue that the offer said it was open until Friday, but a deadline is only the latest the offer can last; it does not stop the offeror from revoking earlier. If Raj had accepted before the revocation reached him, a contract would exist, because acceptance would have come first.
Conclusion. On the facts given, the offer was revoked before acceptance and there is no contract, so Raj cannot sue. If Raj had paid even a small sum to keep the offer open, the result would change.
Q7Very likely
Ben mails an offer to Cleo, and Cleo posts a letter of acceptance on Monday. The letter is lost. On Tuesday Ben, hearing nothing, sells to someone else. Is there a contract? What if Cleo had accepted by email?
How to answer
State the postal rule and its limits.
Answer
Issue. When is a contract formed by mail, and does a lost letter matter?
Rule. Acceptance is normally effective when received, but for mail and telegrams only, acceptance takes effect when it is put in the mailbox (the postal rule, Adams v Lindsell [1818]). It applies even if the letter is lost or delayed, provided proper mailing can be proved (Household Fire Insurance v Grant [1879]). It does not apply to instantaneous communication such as phone, fax or email, where the offeror must actually receive the acceptance.
Application. Cleo posted the letter on Monday, so a contract was formed on Monday, before Ben sold to someone else. The loss of the letter does not matter if Cleo can prove it was properly addressed and posted. Ben is therefore in breach when he sells the goods elsewhere. By email, the postal rule would not apply; acceptance would take effect only when Ben received it, and if it never arrived there would be no contract.
Conclusion. A contract was formed on Monday by mail. Parties can avoid the rule by stating in the offer that acceptance is effective only on receipt.
Q8Very likely
Aristo Condos Inc.'s representative offered a buyer any one of four units for $275,000 and said the details would follow by courier. The courier package contained the formal offers with all the terms, including the required down payment and acceptable mortgage financing. Before the courier arrived, Heilman replied "I accept your offer with respect to unit 307." Was a contract formed? (This is Keith's Chapter 6 Case Problem 3.)
How to answer
The issue is whether the offer was complete and communicated when Heilman accepted. Focus on certainty of terms.
Answer
Issue. Was a contract formed between Aristo and Heilman?
Rule. A contract requires an offer, an acceptance and consideration. An offer must be definite and certain and communicated to the offeree, and terms must be sufficiently certain and complete or the contract is void for uncertainty.
Application. The essential terms (down payment and financing) had not yet reached Heilman when he "accepted", so there was nothing complete and certain for him to accept. At best the exchange was an agreement to agree, which is unenforceable. Heilman might argue the price and the unit were enough, but the missing terms were fundamental to a condominium purchase.
Conclusion. A court is unlikely to find a contract formed.
Q9Likely
A customer signs a car-rental form without reading it. A clause in small print makes him liable for all damage even if the company's own fault caused it. The car is damaged by a defective brake. Can the company rely on the clause?
How to answer
Standard-form contracts and the Tilden rule. Add contra proferentem.
Answer
Standard-form (adhesion) contracts are "take it or leave it" offers. They are efficient but create unequal bargaining power. Under Tilden Rent-A-Car Co v Clendenning, 1978 CanLII 1446 (ONCA), where a standard form contains onerous terms that the signing party is unaware of, the party relying on them must take reasonable measures to bring them to the other party's attention. Ambiguous terms are interpreted against the party who drafted them (contra proferentem). If the company did nothing to highlight the clause and a customer would not expect it, the court will likely refuse to enforce it. The company should highlight onerous terms and obtain separate initials.
Q10Likely
A restaurant posts "$200 reward for return of lost dog". A neighbour finds and returns the dog without having seen the notice beforehand. What kind of contract is this and when is it accepted?
How to answer
Unilateral contract, accepted by performance.
Answer
A unilateral contract is a special offer that can be accepted only by performance, here returning the dog. The notice is a promise to pay a reward in exchange for performance, so acceptance occurs when the dog is returned. Whether the neighbour knew of the reward beforehand is a separate question: acting in knowledge of the offer is normally required for acceptance. (Textbook note, not on MyLS: Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball is the classic case on offers made by advertisement and acceptance by performance.)
Q11Possible
A consumer in Ontario signs an online contract with a company based elsewhere that says all disputes must be heard in that other jurisdiction. Where is the contract formed, and can the clause stop her from suing in Ontario?
How to answer
The place where acceptance occurs determines where the contract is formed and affects jurisdiction. Cite the Consumer Protection Act.
Answer
The place where acceptance occurs is where the contract is formed, and that place helps determine which courts have jurisdiction. Under the Ontario Consumer Protection Act, ss. 7(2) and 8, Ontario consumers cannot waive their right to seek relief in Ontario courts, so the clause cannot stop her from suing in Ontario for a consumer transaction. (Compare Uber Technologies v Heller in the setting-aside section.)
Contract formation II: consideration, intention, capacity, legality and certainty
Once you have an offer and an acceptance, the next question is whether something was given in return and whether the law will let the parties be bound. The most common exam pattern is a promise made without payment (past consideration, a smaller debt payment, a promised discount), followed by an "exception" argument such as promissory estoppel.
Q1Very likely
Define consideration and state the key rules about it.
How to answer
Define it, then state four rules: not the payment itself, adequacy not examined, gifts not enforceable, past consideration is no consideration.
Answer
Consideration is the price agreed to be paid for a promise, what each party gives up to get something in return. It is the agreed exchange, not the actual payment, which is performance. It is usually money but can be services, goods, or a promise to do or not do something. Courts do not examine adequacy: if some consideration exists, its value is irrelevant. A gratuitous promise (a gift) has no consideration and is not enforceable. Past consideration is no consideration, because consideration must be given in exchange for the promise and not for something already done (Roscorla v Thomas [1842]). Performing an existing legal duty is not new consideration. Alternatives: a promise made under seal needs no consideration, and equitable (promissory) estoppel can prevent a party from going back on a promise.
Q2Very likely
Lena buys a used laptop from Marc on Monday and takes it home. On Tuesday Marc emails her "I promise this laptop will work perfectly for two years." It fails after six months. Can she enforce Marc's promise?
How to answer
Spot the timing. The promise came after the sale was complete.
Answer
Issue. Is Marc's promise enforceable?
Rule. A promise is enforceable only if supported by consideration. Consideration must be given in exchange for the promise, and past consideration (something already done) is no consideration (Roscorla v Thomas [1842]).
Application. Lena's payment was made on Monday, and the sale was complete before Marc made the promise. She gave nothing new in exchange for the two-year promise, so her payment is past consideration. Lena might argue the promise was part of the original deal, but the facts say the sale was complete first, and the email came the next day. She might also have a claim under implied terms in the Sale of Goods Act or for misrepresentation, which are separate.
Conclusion. The promise is unenforceable for lack of consideration. She should have asked for the warranty in writing before paying.
Q3Very likely
A debtor owes a creditor $10,000. The creditor agrees to accept $7,000 in full settlement, the debtor pays $7,000, and the creditor then sues for the remaining $3,000. Who wins in Ontario?
How to answer
State the common-law debtor and creditor rule (Foakes v Beer), then the Ontario statute.
Answer
Issue. Can the creditor go back on the settlement?
Rule. At common law a creditor's promise to accept less than the full debt is not binding because the debtor gives no new consideration (Foakes v Beer). In Ontario the Mercantile Law Amendment Act, R.S.O. 1990, c. M.10, s. 16, changes this: where the creditor accepts part payment in settlement and the debtor actually pays the reduced amount, the entire debt is extinguished.
Application. At common law the debtor gave nothing new for the promise, so the creditor could sue for the balance. But here the creditor agreed to accept $7,000 in settlement and the debtor actually paid it, which satisfies s. 16. A promise to take less that has not yet been paid would not be covered.
Conclusion. The debtor wins; the debt is fully discharged. Creditors should not agree to partial settlements unless they mean them.
Q4Very likely
A landlord tells a tenant in writing that rent will be cut by half during three months of construction, and the tenant stays and keeps the business open instead of moving. After the construction the landlord demands the full rent for those months. Can the landlord do this, and can the tenant sue to enforce the discount?
How to answer
Use the three-part equitable estoppel test and remember that it is a shield, not a sword.
Answer
Issue. Is the landlord prevented from claiming the full rent by promissory estoppel?
Rule. Equitable (promissory) estoppel allows a court to prevent a party from denying a promise even without consideration. It is a shield, not a sword: it can be used as a defence but not as a basis to start a lawsuit. The three requirements (Frito-Lay Canada Ltd v Milk & Bread Drivers [1976]) are: (1) a legal relationship already exists; (2) one party promises, even by implication, to release the other from some or all legal duties; and (3) the other party reasonably relies on the promise, alters its position and would suffer hardship if the promisor went back on it.
Application. A lease already exists, so a legal relationship exists. The written promise to halve the rent released the tenant from part of its duty. The tenant relied on it by staying and keeping the business open during construction, and would suffer hardship if forced to pay full rent. The landlord might argue the promise was only temporary or gratuitous, but the tenant's reliance was reasonable.
Conclusion. If the landlord sues for the full rent, the tenant can use estoppel as a defence and the landlord is likely prevented from claiming the reduced amount. If the tenant had already paid the full rent, estoppel could not be used to start an action to recover the difference, because it is a shield and not a sword.
Q5Likely
Explain the seal and why it matters.
How to answer
It is an alternative to consideration.
Answer
A promise properly made under the seal of the promisor does not require consideration. It is an old formal alternative that lets a gift or other one-sided promise be enforceable, and in the course it also appears as a way to keep an offer open without payment.
Q6Likely
What does intention to create legal relations mean, and how do courts test it? Give a business example of each side.
How to answer
Reasonable bystander test; mere puffery.
Answer
A contract requires that the parties intended to create legal obligations. The court asks whether, judged by the parties' outward conduct, a reasonable bystander would think they seriously intended to be bound (the reasonable bystander test). A negotiated and signed supply agreement between two businesses shows serious intention. A salesperson's exaggeration, such as "best coffee in the world", is mere puffery, which is not meant to be binding and is not a promise.
Q7Very likely
Sam, aged 17, signs a contract to buy a $12,000 used car by instalments. He pays four instalments, then stops. The seller sues. What is the position, and what changes when Sam turns 18?
How to answer
Capacity. Minors can void contracts but not all of them. Cover necessaries, beneficial contracts of service and the choice at majority.
Answer
Issue. Is Sam bound by the car contract?
Rule. Minors are persons under 18. A contract with a minor is voidable at the minor's option only: the minor can back out but can enforce the contract if the minor chooses. The exceptions are contracts for necessaries (necessary goods and services, recovering only a reasonable value, quantum meruit) and beneficial contracts of service such as employment or apprenticeship. On reaching majority a minor can either repudiate immediately (this is the last chance to void, especially for instalment contracts) or expressly or impliedly ratify, which removes the right to void; paying after turning 18 is ratification.
Application. A car for ordinary use is probably not a necessary, and the seller cannot enforce an instalment contract against a minor who repudiates. If Sam stops paying while still 17, he is exercising his right to void. If he continues after turning 18 without repudiating promptly, he risks ratifying. He may need to return the car, but the seller cannot recover the full price. The seller might argue the car was needed to get to work (necessary), but the facts do not say so.
Conclusion. Sam can likely void the contract, and should repudiate immediately and clearly in writing, either before or immediately after turning 18. Sellers dealing with minors should ask for a guarantee from an adult.
Q8Likely
State the capacity rules for mentally incompetent persons, corporations, labour unions, Indigenous bands and bankrupts.
How to answer
Use a quick table in your answer.
Answer
Mentally incompetent persons are treated like minors (the contract is voidable at their option). A corporation is a separate legal entity with capacity to contract (a statutory corporation may be limited by ultra vires, acts beyond its powers). Labour unions, associations and other organisations are not separate legal entities, so they sue and are sued through representative actions. Aboriginal bands are special unincorporated associations with a representative capacity like labour unions. An undischarged bankrupt is under certain contractual disabilities, except for necessaries, until discharged.
Q9Very likely
Two parties agree that a contractor will be paid in cash "off the books" so that neither reports the income. A dispute arises. Can the contractor sue for payment? Name the principle, and list other statutory breaches that make contracts illegal.
How to answer
Legality is about the object of the contract. A contract with an illegal object will not be enforced.
Answer
Issue. Will a court enforce the agreement?
Rule. The object of a contract must be legal. A contract is unenforceable (void) if it violates a statute, such as the Criminal Code, the Income Tax Act (contracts to avoid taxes), the Competition Act (unreasonable restraint of trade) or the Law Society Act (unauthorised practice of law), or if it violates the common law or public policy (for example indemnifying a person for committing torts, with insurance excepted, or contracts that are immoral, pervert justice or harm the Canadian public interest).
Application. A deal built to avoid reporting income for tax is a contract to avoid taxes, so it violates the Income Tax Act. A court is unlikely to help either party enforce it.
Conclusion. The contractor will likely be unable to enforce the agreement. Always reduce deals to lawful written terms.
Q10Likely
A written deal says one party will sell its business to another "for fair value" but does not say how fair value is decided or when the sale will happen. Is it enforceable?
How to answer
Certainty of terms.
Answer
A contract must have sufficiently certain and complete terms or it is void for uncertainty, which means no contract was ever formed. "Fair value" with no method of working it out is vague, and missing essential terms such as price, what is being sold and time for performance make it incomplete. A court is unlikely to enforce the deal. The parties should agree on a price or on a defined valuation method and a closing date.
Q11Very likely
Explain the difference between a void contract and a voidable contract and give one example of each.
How to answer
Void means never existed; voidable means exists until one party sets it aside.
Answer
A void contract never existed, for example a contract with an illegal object, or one where the parties made a common mistake about the existence of the subject matter. A voidable contract exists and binds the parties unless one of them chooses to set it aside, for example a contract made by a minor (voidable at the minor's option) or one induced by undue influence or duress (voidable at the victim's option).
Final exam only: setting aside a contract: mistake, misrepresentation, undue influence, unconscionability and duress
Not on the October 24 midterm. Keith's note says the midterm stops before impeachment of a contract, so everything in this section (mistake, undue influence, unconscionability, duress, and rescission as a way of setting a contract aside) belongs to the final exam. The exception is misrepresentation as a tort, which is on the midterm: study it in the torts sections and in the real questions earlier in this guide (Winter 2026 Q7 and review deck Q1). Every question in this section is tagged "Final exam only", so leave it until the midterm is over.
This topic is a favourite for hypotheticals because many facts can raise several grounds at once (a lie, a mistaken belief and some pressure). The answer always has the same shape: name the ground, state its test, apply it, then say whether the result is void, voidable, rescission, rectification or damages. Keith's assigned practice problem for this topic (Chapter 9 Case Problem 5, on misrepresentation) is in Q2.
Q1Final exam only
Define rescission, repudiation and rectification, and list the four main grounds for setting aside a contract.
How to answer
Keep the three remedies distinct. Rescission cancels because of a defect at formation; repudiation is about a failure to perform an essential term; rectification fixes a written mistake.
Answer
Rescission is setting aside a contract because of a defect affecting its formation (mistake, misrepresentation, duress, undue influence); it puts the parties as close as possible to their pre-contract positions, not to the position they expected. Repudiation is one party's failure to perform an essential term; the other may treat the contract as ended and sue for damages, or affirm it and continue, staying ready and willing to perform. Rectification is the rare remedy in which a court fixes a mistake in the written contract. The four main grounds for rescission are mistake, misrepresentation, undue influence (including unconscionability) and duress.
Q2Final exam only
A football player signs a contract with an eastern-conference team believing a certain number of games will be played in a season (16 is standard in the western conference). The contract does not state the number of games and allows him to be traded to a western team. He asks the court to rescind for misrepresentation or non-disclosure. (This is Keith's Chapter 9 Case Problem 5, based on Re Gabriel and Hamilton Tiger Cats.)
How to answer
Use the misrepresentation test and highlight the absence of a representation and the general rule that silence is not misrepresentation without a duty to disclose.
Answer
Issue. Should the contract be rescinded for misrepresentation?
Rule. The plaintiff must show (a) a representation was made, (b) it was made fraudulently, negligently or innocently, and (c) the plaintiff reasonably relied on it to his detriment. A representation must be a statement of fact; omissions are not misrepresentations unless there is a duty to disclose, which arises in special relationships of trust such as a fiduciary relationship; otherwise caveat emptor applies.
Application. The contract says nothing about the number of games, so no representation was made, and it allows trades to the west where 16 games is standard, which makes the term a matter the player could have asked about. There is no sign of a special relationship that would require the team to disclose. It was the player's responsibility to inform himself, and his failure to do so is his own mistake.
Conclusion. A court is unlikely to rescind the contract for misrepresentation. Practical advice: get all assumptions written into the contract before signing.
Q3Final exam only
A used-car dealer tells a buyer, "This car has had one owner and has never been in an accident." The buyer relies on this and buys. The dealer had not checked; the car had been in a serious accident. What can the buyer do?
How to answer
Go through the four elements, classify the type of misrepresentation by the dealer's state of mind, and give the remedy.
Answer
Issue. Can the buyer set aside the contract or recover damages for misrepresentation?
Rule. Misrepresentation requires (1) a statement of fact (not opinion) made before the contract, (2) the statement was false, (3) the buyer reasonably relied on it, and (4) the reliance caused harm. If the statement was made knowingly or with reckless disregard it is fraudulent; if made carelessly where a duty of care is owed it is negligent; if neither, it is innocent.
Application. "Never been in an accident" is a statement of fact, not a sales opinion. It was false, the buyer relied on it in deciding to buy, and he paid for a car worth less than he thought. The dealer did not check, so he was at least careless, which makes it negligent misrepresentation by a seller with expertise (compare Esso Petroleum v Mardon [1976], where Esso's inaccurate throughput estimate was a negligent misrepresentation). If the dealer knew about the accident or was reckless as to the truth, it is fraudulent and the buyer may also claim punitive damages. If he honestly believed it and was not careless, it is innocent and rescission is the only remedy.
Conclusion. The buyer can likely rescind the contract and also claim damages for negligent (or fraudulent) misrepresentation. Dealers should check vehicle histories and give accurate disclosures in writing.
Q4Final exam only
Classify each mistake and state the effect: (a) both parties believe a painting for sale exists, but it burned in a fire the day before; (b) a buyer thinks he is buying a ship called Peerless sailing in October, the seller means a different ship called Peerless sailing in December; (c) the buyer knows the seller has mispriced an item and says nothing; (d) the written contract says "30 units" but both parties had orally agreed on three.
How to answer
Use Keith's table of four mistake types and results.
Answer
(a) common mistake, where both parties share the same mistaken belief: void (the subject matter did not exist). (b) mutual mistake, where the parties are at cross-purposes about what is being contracted for: void if two equally reasonable meanings exist (Raffles v Wichelhaus (1864), the ship Peerless). (c) unilateral mistake, where only one party is mistaken and the other knows: the contract may be rescinded. (d) mistake in reducing the agreement to writing: rectification may be ordered.
Q5Final exam only
An online retailer lists a $1,200 laptop at $12 by mistake. A customer orders it and receives an automated confirmation. The retailer cancels the order. Can the customer enforce the contract?
How to answer
Typographical error. The test is whether a reasonable bystander would recognise it as a mistake.
Answer
Issue. Can the retailer avoid the contract because of its pricing mistake?
Rule. For a mistake in terms such as a typographical error, the test is whether a reasonable bystander, looking at the term objectively, would recognise it as a mistake. If so, the contract is voidable at the option of the party that made the mistake.
Application. A laptop normally worth around $1,200 priced at $12 is an obvious error that a reasonable bystander would recognise. The customer will argue the website was an offer that he accepted, but the retailer is the one who made the error and can set the contract aside. If he had actually paid $12 and the retailer promptly cancelled and refunded, there is no loss to compensate.
Conclusion. The retailer can likely cancel. The retailer should act promptly, refund, and use checks to catch price errors.
Q6Final exam only
Explain mistake about the subject matter, distinguishing mistakes about existence from mistakes about value, and say what Hyrsky v Smith decided.
How to answer
Existence makes the contract void; value only counts if it changes the character of what was sold.
Answer
A mistake about the existence of the subject matter makes the contract void. A mistake about value does not usually matter: the court intervenes only if the mistake was present at the outset and so substantial that it changed the quality of the subject matter, not for later market fluctuations. In Hyrsky v Smith (1969) the buyer bought land for development that was significantly smaller than believed, which changed the quality of what was bought, and rescission was granted.
Q7Final exam only
A landowner and a developer orally agree that the landowner will sell three condominium units for $500,000 each. The typed contract says $50,000 each, and both sign without noticing. Can the court fix the contract?
How to answer
This is a mistake in reducing the terms to writing. State when rectification is available and how rare it is.
Answer
A court may order rectification where there was a mutual mistake in recording the actual agreement (both parties meant the same thing but wrote it wrongly). For a unilateral mistake it is very rare and needs an otherwise complete agreement, no further negotiations, possibly fraud (not required), proof that when the document was signed the defendant knew or should have known of the mistake and the plaintiff did not, and that enforcing the inaccurate document would be equivalent to fraud. Because both parties here agreed orally on $500,000 and neither noticed the typing error, a court is likely to rectify the price to the agreed $500,000.
Q8Final exam only
A fraudster poses as the manager of a real, well-known company and buys goods on credit, then sells them to an innocent purchaser. In a second case a fraudster uses a company name that does not exist and does the same. Who keeps the goods in each case?
How to answer
Use the two identity cases and explain void versus voidable and the innocent third party.
Answer
When a fraudster assumes the identity of a real person or company, the contract is void (Cundy v Lindsay): there was no contract, title never passed to the fraudster, so the goods must be returned to the original seller and the innocent purchaser loses. When the identity is completely fabricated, the contract is voidable (King's Norton Metal Co v Edridge): it exists until it is voided, so title passed to the fraudster, who could pass good title to an innocent purchaser for value without notice, and the third party keeps the goods. The subsequent purchaser must be a bona fide purchaser for value.
Q9Final exam only
A bank manager asks an elderly client to sign a document, telling her it is a routine receipt. In fact it is a guarantee of the manager's brother's loan. She signs without reading because she trusted him. Can she avoid it?
How to answer
Non est factum, "this is not the contract I agreed to". Apply the three elements and note that it rarely succeeds.
Answer
Non est factum is a historical defence from when many people could not read, which allows a person to say that the document she signed is not the contract she agreed to. The legal test, on a balance of probabilities, requires that (a) the party was mistaken about the nature of the document, (b) the mistake resulted from a misrepresentation by the other party, and (c) the party was not careless in signing. Here she believed she was signing a receipt, the manager's false statement caused the mistake, and her carefulness depends on the facts (she was elderly and relied on a trusted bank manager, but she did not read the page). The defence rarely applies, but it could succeed, and her facts also point to misrepresentation and undue influence.
Q10Final exam only
An elderly father in poor health signs over his house to a child who is his caregiver for much less than it is worth. The father had no independent legal advice. Can the transfer be set aside?
How to answer
Use the two-part undue influence test and name the type of domination.
Answer
Issue. Was the transfer obtained by undue influence?
Rule. Undue influence is domination of one party over the mind of another so as to deprive that person of the will to make an independent decision; the contract is voidable at the option of the victim. The plaintiff must show on a balance of probabilities (1) domination by the other party, shown by (a) a special relationship, (b) desperate circumstances at formation, (c) a threat of prosecution, or (d) an unconscionable contract; and (2) the contract is unfair or disadvantageous to the weaker party.
Application. A caregiver child and a dependent, elderly father are in a special relationship of trust and dependence, which suggests domination. The father signed without independent legal advice (ILA), which is the usual protection in such relationships. Selling for much less than the house is worth is plainly disadvantageous to him. The child will argue the father made the choice freely, but the combination of dependence, no ILA and a bad bargain points toward domination.
Conclusion. The father (or his representative) can likely set the transfer aside. Where a deal is between people in a special relationship, the stronger party should insist that the weaker party gets independent legal advice.
Q11Final exam only
What is unconscionability as an independent doctrine, and what did Uber v Heller decide?
How to answer
Say it is tied to inequality of bargaining power, and give the case facts.
Answer
Unconscionability is a basis for reversing contracts that has a special meaning in relation to inequality of bargaining power, distinct from the everyday sense of unfairness. In Uber Technologies Inc v Heller (SCC 2020) Uber's arbitration clause required drivers to arbitrate disputes in the Netherlands and pay US$14,500 in upfront fees. The clause arose from a standard form with unequal bargaining power and was held unconscionable.
Q12Final exam only
A contractor threatens to burn a client's warehouse unless the client signs a new price. The client signs. Can the client avoid the contract?
How to answer
Duress covers actual or threatened violence or imprisonment, and the extended test covers illegitimate pressure.
Answer
Duress is actual or threatened violence or imprisonment used to coerce a party into a contract, and the contract is voidable at the victim's option. Keith's slides also give the broader test: pressure that the law does not regard as legitimate, applied to such a degree as to amount to coercion of the will, or leaving the party no realistic alternative but to submit. A threat to burn a warehouse is violence and illegitimate pressure, so the client can avoid the contract and should promptly say so and involve the police.
Q13Final exam only
What are the remedies for each ground, and how does the remedy depend on whether the contract is void or voidable?
How to answer
One line per ground.
Answer
Void contracts (common or mutual mistake, illegality) never existed, so there is nothing to enforce and benefits conferred are returned. Voidable contracts (unilateral mistake, misrepresentation, undue influence, duress, minors) exist until the innocent party elects to set them aside by rescission. Misrepresentation also gives damages when negligent or fraudulent, and punitive damages may follow for fraud. Rectification applies to mistakes in writing. Third parties who buy in good faith without notice are protected where the contract was voidable but not where it was void.
Final exam only: contracts in writing and contract interpretation
Not on the October 24 midterm. The requirement of writing (the Statute of Frauds and part performance), contract interpretation, good faith and the sale-of-goods and consumer topics come after impeachment, so they belong to the final exam. Winter 2026 Q8 and the second half of review deck Q2 show how Keith tests part performance, so skim those if you have spare time, but put your midterm study into torts and the seven elements of a contract. Every question in this section is tagged "Final exam only".
The Statute of Frauds is the last formal topic before the midterm, and Keith's notes flag four categories as KEY (guarantees, marriage, agreements not to be performed within one year, and land). Interpretation (Sattva), the duty of good faith (Bhasin) and implied terms under the Sale of Goods Act round out the scope. Expect at least one short question and one fact pattern here.
Q1Final exam only
List the types of contract that the Statute of Frauds requires to be in writing, and say what happens if there is no writing.
How to answer
List the categories and mark the four key ones. Then state the consequence: unenforceable, not void.
Answer
The Statute of Frauds (an English statute of 1677 that still exists in Ontario) requires writing for: (1) a promise by an executor to pay a debt of the estate personally; (2) guarantees (key); (3) a promise to answer for the miscarriage (tort) of another; (4) contracts made in consideration of marriage (key); (5) ratification of a minor's contract; (6) agreements not to be performed by either party within one year (key); and (7) contracts concerning land (key). A contract that does not comply is unenforceable, not void: courts will not enforce it, but it exists and the parties may voluntarily perform. The defendant must plead the Statute.
Q2Final exam only
Maya orally tells a bank, "If my brother doesn't repay his $20,000 loan, I'll pay it." He defaults. Separately, Maya orally tells a supplier, "Deliver the goods to my brother, I'll pay for them as long as you deliver." Which promises must be in writing?
How to answer
Distinguish a guarantee from an indemnity.
Answer
Issue. Is Maya's oral promise to the bank enforceable?
Rule. A guarantee is a conditional promise to pay the debt of another if the debtor defaults, and it must be in writing to be enforceable under the Statute of Frauds. An indemnity is a promise to pay on behalf of a third party as long as the other party performs (for example co-signing, not conditional on default), and does not need to be in writing (except in British Columbia).
Application. The promise to the bank is conditional on the brother's default, so it is a guarantee and was oral, which makes it unenforceable. The promise to the supplier is a promise to pay for goods the supplier delivers, not conditional on a default, so it is an indemnity and need not be in writing, although proof is difficult. The bank may argue Maya's promise was a primary obligation, but the conditional wording suggests a guarantee.
Conclusion. The guarantee is unenforceable without writing; the indemnity may be enforceable. Lenders should always get guarantees in signed writing.
Q3Final exam only
Dan orally agrees to buy Ella's farmland. He pays a deposit, moves equipment onto the land and builds a fence with Ella's knowledge. Ella then sells the land to another buyer, relying on the lack of writing. Can Dan enforce the oral agreement?
How to answer
Land contracts must be in writing. Then discuss the part performance exception and apply its elements.
Answer
Issue. Is the oral land contract enforceable despite the Statute of Frauds?
Rule. Any contract concerning land must be in writing. The equitable doctrine of part performance allows enforcement of an oral contract where the plaintiff has partly performed. The test is (a) the contract concerns land; (b) the plaintiff's acts clearly indicate the existence of a contract about that land (acts inextricably linked to the land); and (c) the acts were performed by the plaintiff. Keith's slides add that the plaintiff changed position or spent money in reliance so that it would be unfair to cancel, and that the other party knew and allowed it without objection.
Application. The contract concerns land. Moving equipment onto the land and building a fence are acts that point to a contract about that land, and Dan, the plaintiff, did them. He spent money in reliance, and Ella knew and let him proceed without objection. Ella may argue the deposit and fence are consistent with a lease or a trial period, so they do not prove a sale, but the fence and possession point more to ownership. Ella's sale to another buyer is the breach.
Conclusion. Dan can likely rely on part performance and enforce the contract. Land buyers should always get a written agreement, and Dan should seek an order of specific performance or damages quickly.
Q4Final exam only
A consultant orally agrees to work for a company for 18 months. After 5 months the company ends the arrangement, and the consultant sues. Does the Statute of Frauds apply? What exceptions exist?
How to answer
One-year rule and its exceptions.
Answer
An agreement not to be performed within one year must be in writing. A fixed 18-month engagement is, on its face, within the rule, so the oral deal is unenforceable. The exceptions are an indefinite term in the contract (a standing agreement that might end sooner) and where one party is expected to perform within the year though the other is not, in which case the Statute does not apply. If the consultant has already worked 5 months and been paid, the company cannot keep the benefit without paying; the consultant can recover a reasonable price (quantum meruit).
Q5Final exam only
What does "in writing" require? Is an exchange of emails or a typed name enough?
How to answer
No special form, but all essential terms and a signature from the party being sued.
Answer
No specific form is needed, only enough to show certainty of terms. The writing can be spread over several documents, but you cannot link them with oral promises. Electronic writing and e-signatures are acceptable. The writing must contain the essential terms: the parties' names, the subject matter, the consideration (except for guarantees), payment details and the signature of the party to be charged (the party being sued). An exchange of emails that contains all of this, with a typed name or e-signature, can suffice.
Q6Final exam only
A buyer pays a $20,000 deposit on an oral agreement to buy land. The seller refuses to proceed and keeps the deposit. What are the consequences of there being no writing?
How to answer
Lack of writing makes the contract unenforceable, not void, and affects deposits and benefits.
Answer
The Statute can be used as a defence by the seller if the buyer sues to enforce the sale, but a person who received a deposit cannot both refuse to perform and keep the deposit. The buyer can recover the deposit, since a contract that is unenforceable can still be used to justify keeping a deposit only if the other party refuses to perform. Anyone who has provided goods or services under an unenforceable contract can claim quantum meruit (a reasonable price). A later written agreement or memorandum signed before the lawsuit is enough, and an oral contract may vary a written contract.
Q7Final exam only
A buyer orally orders $5,000 of equipment by phone, and later the seller refuses to deliver, saying the deal was not in writing. The buyer made no payment and has not received any of the goods. Does the Sale of Goods Act help the seller?
How to answer
State the SGA writing rule and its substitutes, and note the Ontario carve-out.
Answer
In every province except British Columbia and Ontario, a contract for the sale of goods (usually over $50) must be evidenced by a note or memorandum signed by the party to be charged, or it is unenforceable. Substitutes for writing are acceptance (conduct of the buyer recognising a contract), part payment and earnest (a token given to seal the bargain). In Ontario this writing requirement does not apply, so the seller cannot use it as a defence; the buyer would still have to prove the oral agreement. If the dispute is in a province where the rule applies, the buyer's lack of any payment, acceptance or earnest would leave the contract unenforceable.
Q8Final exam only
A door-to-door salesperson sells a consumer a $900 water filter and gives her no paperwork. What does the Consumer Protection Act require?
How to answer
B2C only; direct agreements over $50 must be in writing with specified contents.
Answer
The Consumer Protection Act applies only to business-to-consumer contracts, not business-to-business. Direct agreements (such as door-to-door sales) over $50 must be in writing and the writing must contain a detailed description of the goods or services, an itemised purchase price, the vendor's name, address and contact information, and a notice of the consumer's statutory cancellation rights; a copy must be given to the consumer. A salesperson who gave no paperwork breaches the Act, and the consumer can likely cancel.
Q9Final exam only
A written supply contract says the supplier will deliver goods "as soon as reasonably possible". The buyer says that means within two weeks, the supplier says two months. How will a court decide what the clause means?
How to answer
Use the Sattva steps in order and mention contra proferentem if the contract is a standard form.
Answer
Issue. How should the court interpret the delivery clause?
Rule. In Sattva Capital Corp v Creston Moly Corp, 2014 SCC 53, the court begins with the plain meaning of the words, then considers trade usage and customs, and then the factual matrix (the surrounding circumstances when the contract was formed). Courts make every effort to enforce the contract and prefer a commercially reasonable interpretation. If there are two reasonable interpretations, contra proferentem favours the interpretation sought by the party that did not write the contract (if it is a standard form). The parol evidence rule, which kept outside evidence out, is now almost non-existent.
Application. "As soon as reasonably possible" has no fixed number of days, so the court looks to usage in the industry and to the circumstances: how quickly the supplier delivered to others, what the buyer said about needing the goods, and what is commercially reasonable. If the buyer wrote the contract, the clause may be read against the buyer. A court will not void the deal for uncertainty because it can fill the gap.
Conclusion. The court will likely choose a reasonable period based on trade practice and the matrix, probably closer to what suppliers in that industry typically do. Parties should state numbers ("within 14 days") to avoid disputes.
Q10Final exam only
A supplier tells a distributor it will renew their agreement while secretly arranging to replace the distributor. When the term ends it does not renew. Can the distributor sue?
How to answer
Bhasin and the duty of honest performance. Note the course's framing that every Canadian contract has an implied duty of good faith.
Answer
Issue. Did the supplier breach the duty of good faith?
Rule. Every contract in Canada has an implied duty of good faith between the contracting parties (Bhasin v Hrynew, 2014 SCC 71). Textbook detail: Bhasin recognised an organising principle of good faith and a duty of honest performance, which means parties must not lie to or knowingly mislead each other about matters directly linked to performance.
Application. The supplier knowingly misled the distributor about renewal, which is directly linked to the performance of the agreement, while planning the opposite. The supplier may argue that it had no obligation to renew, which is true, but the breach is the dishonesty in how it dealt with the distributor, not the decision not to renew.
Conclusion. The distributor likely succeeds on breach of the duty of honest performance and can claim damages for the loss caused by its reliance on the false statements. Businesses should be truthful in all dealings about contract performance and renewals.
Q11Final exam only
A buyer tells a hardware dealer, "I need a ladder strong enough to paint a two-storey house," and the dealer sells her one. It collapses under her weight during normal use. There is no written warranty. What are her rights?
How to answer
Use the Sale of Goods Act implied conditions in section 15, beginning with the caveat emptor rule and then the exceptions.
Answer
Issue. Is there an implied condition that the ladder was fit for its purpose?
Rule. Under the Sale of Goods Act, R.S.O. 1990, c. S.1, s. 15, there is no implied warranty or condition about quality or fitness for any particular purpose (caveat emptor), except: (a) where the buyer relies on the seller's skill or judgment for a particular purpose, there is an implied condition of fitness for that purpose; (b) where goods are bought by description from a dealer in such goods, there is an implied condition of merchantable quality; (c) usage of trade may add an implied term; and (d) an express warranty does not remove an implied one unless inconsistent.
Application. The buyer stated her purpose and relied on the dealer's expertise, so the implied condition of fitness for that purpose applies. The ladder collapsed in ordinary use, so it was not fit. It was also bought from a dealer in ladders, so it should have been of merchantable quality. The dealer may argue she did not rely on its judgment, but the facts say she told it her purpose.
Conclusion. The buyer can likely claim breach of an implied condition and recover her loss, including any injury damages, and may be able to reject the ladder. Sellers should describe products accurately and may disclaim only where the law permits.
Q12Final exam only
What is an implied term, and how does it relate to the duty of good faith?
How to answer
A one-sentence definition and a link.
Answer
An implied term is a term not expressly included but that the parties, as reasonable people, would have included had they put their minds to it. The duty of good faith (Bhasin) is a general implied duty in every contract. The slides also cite Nickel Developments Ltd as an example of an implied term (no details were given). Implied terms are different from the Sale of Goods Act's implied conditions, which are set by statute.
Full problem questions with complete model IRAC answers
Which of these are in scope: Q4 (the Statute of Frauds and part performance) and Q5 (mistake) are tagged "Final exam only" because they test material that comes after impeachment, so skip them until the midterm is over. Q1 (occupiers' liability and negligence), Q2 (offer and acceptance), Q3 (misrepresentation) and Q6 (fiduciary duty and negligent misrepresentation) are all inside the midterm scope, and they sit close to what Keith's old exams ask.
The exam will almost certainly give you one or more fact-pattern problems (Keith's assignment rubric and his case-problem answer key both show the style: several issues buried in one story, apply the tests, reach a conclusion). The six problems below use invented facts, set in Ontario, and each one blends two to four topics the way a real hypothetical does. Read the question, cover the answer, write your own IRAC by hand against a clock (20 to 25 minutes each), then compare. The model answers are longer than you could handwrite in that time, so each one ends with a "Short on time" line telling you the minimum to get on the page.
Format to copy: Issue (one sentence per question the facts raise), Rule (the test, with the case or statute name), Application (go element by element, use the facts, give the other side's best argument), Conclusion (a clear answer, with a hedge that matches how strong the facts are).
Q1Very likely
Green Thumb Ltd runs a garden centre in Ontario. On a busy Saturday morning, Jordan, a part-time cashier, drops a 4-litre jug of clear liquid fertilizer in the main aisle near the entrance. Jordan tells no one and leaves to find paper towels. The yellow "Wet Floor" sign is in the storeroom. Six months earlier the manager, Ms. Rao, told staff to use signs for spills, but she never checks and says, "Nothing has ever happened here." Three minutes after the spill Priya, a customer wearing flip-flops and looking at her phone, slips, falls and breaks her wrist. She is a freelance photographer and cannot work for six weeks. Advise Priya on a claim against Green Thumb Ltd. Discuss any ethical issues.
How to answer
Identify three legal issues (negligence/occupiers' liability, who is responsible for Jordan, and Priya's own fault) plus ethics. Run the four-part negligence test in order, name Donoghue and Kamloops for duty, mention the Occupiers' Liability Act, and put the defence arguments inside the standard-of-care and defence steps instead of saving them for the end. Finish with the two Ethics Unwrapped biases.
Answer
Issue. Is Green Thumb Ltd liable to Priya in negligence (and under the Occupiers' Liability Act) for her injury; is it responsible for Jordan's act; and does Priya's own conduct reduce what she can recover?
Rule. In negligence Priya must prove, on a balance of probabilities, (1) a duty of care, (2) breach of the standard of care, (3) causation (but-for, then remoteness under The Wagon Mound), and (4) damage. Duty comes from Donoghue v Stevenson (the neighbour principle) and the Kamloops v Nielsen two-step: a sufficiently close relationship so that harm from carelessness is reasonably foreseeable, then any policy reasons to negate or limit the duty. The Occupiers' Liability Act s. 3(1) adds a statutory duty on the occupier to take the care that is reasonable in all the circumstances to see that people entering are reasonably safe. An employer is vicariously liable for torts its employees commit in the course of employment. Contributory negligence reduces damages in proportion to the plaintiff's fault (Negligence Act); voluntary assumption of risk is a full defence but needs knowledge and acceptance of the risk (Schneider; OLA s. 4).
Application. Duty: Green Thumb Ltd is the occupier and Priya is a paying customer who was invited in, so the relationship is as close as it gets and a wet floor injuring a shopper is plainly foreseeable. No policy reason negates the duty, and s. 3(1) confirms it. Standard of care: a reasonable store owner would clean up a spill at once, or at least mark and block it until it is cleaned. Jordan left a hazard in a high-traffic aisle with no warning at all, and the sign was in the storeroom. Green Thumb's best counter is that three minutes is a reasonable time to respond to a spill. That helps only if the store had a working system, and here the system existed on paper but was never enforced. Breach is very likely. Causation: but for the unmarked spill Priya would not have fallen, and a broken wrist from a slip is exactly the type of harm that was foreseeable, so remoteness is no obstacle. Damage: she can claim special damages for medical costs and six weeks of lost income (she must prove the figures) and general damages for pain and suffering.
Vicarious liability: Jordan is an employee, and handling a spill during a shift is part of the job, so Green Thumb Ltd answers for Jordan's carelessness. It is also directly at fault for failing to enforce its own signage policy, which strengthens the claim.
Defences: contributory negligence is Green Thumb's real argument. A reasonable adult watches where she walks and does not wear flip-flops while looking at a phone, and the liquid was clear. A court could find Priya partly at fault and reduce damages (a reduction in the range of 20 to 30 percent would be plausible), but it would not bar the claim because the store created the hazard and gave no warning. Voluntary assumption of risk fails: Priya did not know about the spill, so she could not have willingly accepted that risk (Schneider).
Conclusion. Priya will most likely succeed against Green Thumb Ltd, with damages reduced for her contributory negligence.
Ethics. Overconfidence bias: Ms. Rao's belief that "nothing has ever happened here" overestimates how safe the store is and caused her to skip checks. Incrementalism: skipping a sign once did no harm, so staff skipped it again, until not using signs became normal. Neither bias is a defence, and both are the kind of conduct a court treats as unreasonable. Risk management: stock signs in every aisle, adopt a "stay with the spill" rule, train and audit staff, and keep liability insurance.
Short on time: duty (Donoghue + Kamloops + OLA s. 3(1)), breach (no warning), causation, damage, employer vicariously liable, contributory negligence reduces damages, conclusion, one line naming both biases.
Q2Very likely
On Monday at 9 AM Dana emails Marcus: "I will sell you my used commercial espresso machine for $4,000. This offer stays open until Friday at 5 PM." On Tuesday Marcus emails back: "Would you consider $3,500?" Dana replies the same afternoon: "No. $4,000 is my price." On Wednesday at 9 AM Marcus mails a signed letter saying "I accept your offer at $4,000." On Wednesday at 4 PM Dana, who has found a better buyer, emails Marcus: "I am withdrawing my offer. The machine is sold." Marcus reads that email on Thursday morning. His letter reaches Dana on Friday morning. Is there a contract?
How to answer
Treat it as a timeline problem. Walk through each event in order and decide what it did to the offer: created it, kept it alive, killed it, or accepted it. Name the rules (offer vs invitation to treat, counter-offer, revocation, consideration for a promise to keep an offer open, the postal rule with Adams v Lindsell and Household Fire v Grant). Where the facts are close, argue both sides and then pick one.
Answer
Issue. Did a contract form between Dana and Marcus before Dana withdrew, which depends on (1) whether Dana made an offer, (2) whether Marcus's Tuesday email ended it, (3) whether Dana could revoke despite saying the offer stayed open until Friday, and (4) when Marcus's acceptance took effect.
Rule. A contract needs offer, acceptance and consideration (plus intention to create legal relations, capacity and legality). An offer is a definite promise to be bound on stated terms; an invitation to treat only invites offers. A counter-offer rejects the original offer and ends it, while a mere inquiry about whether the other side will negotiate does not. An offer may be revoked at any time before acceptance if the revocation is communicated, and a promise to keep an offer open is not binding unless the offeree gave consideration for it. Acceptance normally takes effect when it is communicated to the offeror. The postal rule is an exception: acceptance by mail is effective when posted (Adams v Lindsell), even if the letter is delayed or lost (Household Fire Insurance v Grant), where mail is a reasonable way to accept in the circumstances.
Application. Offer: Dana's Monday email is an offer. It names the thing, the price and a person, and it says "I will sell you," which shows an intention to be bound, so it is not an invitation to treat. Marcus's Tuesday email: "Would you consider $3,500?" is best read as an inquiry. It does not say Marcus will buy at $3,500 and it does not reject $4,000, so the offer survived. Even if a court treated it as a counter-offer, Dana's reply "$4,000 is my price" would be a fresh offer on the same terms, so an offer for $4,000 was open on Wednesday morning either way. Revocation: Dana promised to keep the offer open until Friday, but Marcus gave nothing in return for that promise, so there is no option contract and Dana was free to revoke at any time before acceptance. A revocation takes effect when it is communicated, and her email arrived Wednesday at 4 PM, so the question is whether Marcus accepted before then.
Acceptance is the key issue. If the postal rule applies, Marcus accepted on Wednesday at 9 AM when he posted the letter, so a contract was formed before the 4 PM withdrawal, and Dana's later email is too late (it would not matter that the letter did not arrive until Friday). Marcus will argue that Dana's offer did not limit the method of acceptance and that a posted signed acceptance is a recognized method. Dana's reply is that the postal rule is a special exception that applies only where mail is a reasonable or contemplated way to accept, and an offer made by email, a near-instant medium, does not contemplate it. Marcus could have emailed back in seconds. If the postal rule does not apply, acceptance takes effect only on receipt, which is Friday, after the withdrawal had been communicated on Wednesday, and no contract exists. Consideration and intention are not an issue: $4,000 for the machine is real consideration between businesspeople.
Conclusion. The better view is that the postal rule does not apply to an acceptance by letter in reply to an email offer, so Marcus's acceptance came too late and no contract exists, although a court that applies the postal rule would find a contract formed Wednesday morning. Exam tip: Keith's notes state the postal rule simply as applying to mail and telegrams, so a marker working from his notes may expect a contract formed Wednesday at 9 AM; either conclusion can earn full marks if you state the rule, argue both sides and commit to one. Advice: always accept in the same medium the offer used and confirm receipt, and pay a small amount to turn a promise to hold an offer open into a binding option.
Short on time: offer (not an invitation), inquiry not counter-offer, no consideration for "open until Friday" so revocable, postal rule applies or not (argue both, pick one), conclusion.
Q3Very likely
Karen sells her yoga studio to Luis for $180,000. During negotiations Karen says (a) "We have about 300 active members and bring in $15,000 a month"; the studio really has 180 members and $9,000 a month, and Karen knows it. She also says (b) "The landlord is great, I'm sure he will renew the lease," and says nothing about a letter she received last month saying the building will be demolished in 18 months. Luis was offered the books, but "did not have time" to review them and relied on Karen's numbers. The contract includes a clause: "The buyer acknowledges that no representations were made other than those in this agreement." Six weeks after closing, Luis finds out everything. He wants his money back. Advise Luis.
How to answer
List the misrepresentation test (statement of fact, false, induced the contract, material), classify each statement (fact vs opinion), classify the type (innocent, negligent, fraudulent), deal with silence (no general duty to disclose, with exceptions), and finish with remedies (rescission and damages). Anticipate Karen's three defences: the buyer did not check the books, the clause, and delay.
Answer
Issue. Can Luis set aside the sale for misrepresentation (and claim damages), given Karen's statements about members and income, her statement about the lease, and her silence about the demolition notice?
Rule. A misrepresentation is a false statement of fact, made by one party to the other, that induces the other to enter the contract. Statements of opinion or sales puffery are not facts, unless the speaker is an expert or does not honestly hold the opinion. There are three types: innocent (honest and non-negligent), negligent (careless; Hercules Management v Ernst & Young for the tort, including reasonable reliance) and fraudulent (knowingly false, or reckless as to truth). Silence is generally not misrepresentation (caveat emptor), but there is a duty to disclose where a half-truth is misleading, where there is a latent defect, where there is active concealment, or in a special relationship. The contract is voidable, and the remedies are rescission (the parties are returned to their pre-contract positions, promptly, if third-party rights have not intervened) and, for negligent or fraudulent misrepresentation, damages.
Application. Statement (a): membership and monthly revenue are verifiable facts, they were false, they are material to the price of a business, and Luis relied on them to pay $180,000. Karen ran the studio, so she knew the real numbers and the misrepresentation is fraudulent. Karen will say Luis could have checked the books and "should have informed himself," the reasoning in Re Gabriel and Hamilton Tiger-Cats. That argument is much stronger against a claim of negligent misrepresentation (reasonable reliance is an element) than against fraud, where a victim's carelessness is generally not a defence. Statement (b): "I'm sure he will renew" looks like an opinion or prediction about a third party's future decision, so on its own it is not a misrepresentation of fact. Karen, though, knew that the landlord had said the building would be demolished, so she did not honestly hold that opinion, which makes the statement a misrepresentation about her own state of mind. Silence about the demolition notice: normally there is no duty to disclose, but she did not simply stay silent, because she gave a positive assurance about renewal while holding information that made it false. A half-truth of this kind is misleading by omission, and the notice is a defect in the heart of the business that Luis could not discover by looking at the premises, so a duty to disclose arose.
The "no other representations" clause is Karen's other defence. Courts read these clauses but will not let a party use one to protect itself from its own fraud, and a clause that Luis signed without negotiating, in a standard-form closing document, is a weak shield against knowing falsehoods. Remedies: Luis acted within six weeks of closing, which is prompt, and he can seek rescission and return of the purchase price if he can return the studio substantially as received (restitutio in integrum). Because the fraud was deliberate he can also sue in deceit for damages, which for a business purchase is usually the difference between what he paid and what the business was worth, plus consequential losses. He must choose carefully: if he keeps operating the studio after discovering the facts, Karen will argue he affirmed the contract.
Conclusion. Luis will probably succeed. Statement (a) is a fraudulent misrepresentation of fact that induced the contract, and the half-truth about the lease supports rescission, a refund and damages.
Short on time: fact vs opinion, four elements, three types, half-truth about the lease, entire-agreement clause does not protect fraud, rescission (prompt, restitution) and damages, conclusion.
Q4Final exam only
On May 1 Nadia orally agrees to sell a vacant lot in Muskoka to Tom for $200,000, with closing on June 30. They shake hands and nothing is signed. Tom e-transfers $20,000 with the memo "deposit," which Nadia keeps. With Nadia's knowledge and approval, Tom then hires a contractor to clear the lot and build a gravel driveway, costing $15,000. On June 1 Nadia receives a $320,000 offer from another buyer and tells Tom the deal is off because nothing is in writing. Separately, to get the contractor to start work, Tom's brother-in-law Omar orally told the contractor, "If Tom doesn't pay you, I will." Tom does not pay and the contractor sues Omar. Advise Tom and Omar.
How to answer
Two issues, each starting with "Does the Statute of Frauds apply?" Land: the contract is in a covered category, so ask whether there is a sufficient writing signed by the party to be charged, and if not whether part performance rescues it. Guarantee: decide whether Omar's promise is a guarantee (secondary, needs writing) or an indemnity (primary, no writing needed). State the consequence: unenforceable, not void.
Answer
Issue. (1) Can Tom enforce Nadia's oral promise to sell land, or does the Statute of Frauds defeat him? (2) Is Omar bound by his oral promise to pay the contractor?
Rule. Under the Statute of Frauds certain contracts must be evidenced in writing and signed by the party to be charged: contracts for the sale of an interest in land, guarantees, contracts that cannot be performed within a year, and promises made in consideration of marriage. A contract with no writing is not void but unenforceable by court action, so money already paid can be recovered. The writing needs the essential terms (parties, subject matter, price) and the signature of the person being sued. The equitable doctrine of part performance allows enforcement of an oral land contract where the plaintiff has done acts that are unequivocally referable to the contract and it would be a fraud on the plaintiff to let the defendant rely on the statute. A guarantee is a promise to answer for another's debt if that person defaults (the promisor's liability is secondary); an indemnity is a primary promise to pay regardless of whether the other person is liable, and needs no writing.
Application (1). A contract for the sale of land falls squarely in the Statute of Frauds. Nadia is the party to be charged and she signed nothing, so on its face the contract is unenforceable against her. Tom's e-transfer memo is his own words and carries no signature or acknowledgement from Nadia, so it cannot be the required writing. Tom's claim rests on part performance. Paying a deposit alone is generally not enough, because money can be paid for many reasons and so is not unequivocally referable to a land sale. Clearing the lot and building a driveway, with Nadia's knowledge and approval, is different: a person does not spend $15,000 improving land that he does not believe he is buying, so these acts point unmistakably to a sale, and combined with the deposit they make it unfair for Nadia to hide behind the statute after she encouraged him. Nadia will argue the work could be explained as a gesture in anticipation of a deal, and that the improvements are compensable in money. Even if part performance fails, the contract is unenforceable, not void, so Tom can recover his $20,000 deposit and compensation for the improvements, because Nadia cannot keep both the money and the land.
Application (2). Omar's promise is to pay only if Tom does not. Tom stays the primary debtor and Omar's liability is secondary, so it is a guarantee, and a guarantee must be in writing signed by the guarantor. Omar signed nothing, so the contractor cannot enforce the promise against him, although the contractor can still sue Tom for the debt. If Omar had instead said, "Do the job and I will pay you, whatever happens," he would have taken on a primary obligation, which is an indemnity needing no writing, and he could be held to it. The exact words matter.
Conclusion. Tom has a good chance of enforcing the sale (specific performance) through part performance and, at minimum, can recover his deposit and the value of his improvements. Omar's oral guarantee is unenforceable, but the contractor can pursue Tom.
Short on time: land and guarantees are both in the Statute of Frauds, no signed writing so unenforceable (not void), part performance (acts unequivocally referable, deposit alone is weak, possession and improvements are strong), guarantee vs indemnity, conclusion.
Q5Final exam only
Greg sells vintage guitars and has three transactions to untangle. (a) Greg emails Fatima: "I will sell you my Fender for $6,000." Greg owns two Fenders, a 1962 Stratocaster and a 1978 Telecaster. Fatima pictured the 1962 Stratocaster she saw in his shop; Greg meant the 1978 Telecaster, which is the only one he wanted to sell. Neither knew what the other meant, and Fatima accepted. (b) Greg agrees by phone to sell Fatima a 1959 Gibson for $12,000, but his assistant types $1,200 on the written contract, which Greg signs without reading it carefully. Fatima, who knows the guitar is worth $12,000 or more, signs it and sends a deposit. (c) Greg sends another guitar to "Patel Music Ltd," a well-known real shop in a nearby town that he has dealt with, after emails that came from a look-alike address. The sender was a fraudster who paid with a cheque that bounced, then sold the guitar to Hannah, who bought it in good faith for $3,000. Advise Greg on each.
How to answer
Three mistake problems in one. For each, name the type of mistake and apply the case: (a) mutual mistake with two equally reasonable meanings (Raffles v Wichelhaus), (b) unilateral mistake that the other side knew about, with rectification, (c) identity fraud with the void vs voidable split (Cundy v Lindsay vs King's Norton). State the consequence of each: void, voidable, or rectified.
Answer
Issue. In each case, is the contract binding, void, voidable or rectifiable, and can Greg get his guitar or his price back?
Rule. Mistake can prevent a contract from forming or allow it to be set aside. Mutual mistake: if the parties' words support two equally reasonable meanings and each understood a different one, there is no consensus and the contract is void (Raffles v Wichelhaus, the two ships named Peerless). Courts first interpret the words objectively using the factual matrix (Sattva), and find a contract if a reasonable person would prefer one meaning. A mistake so fundamental that it changes the nature or quality of the subject matter permits rescission (Hyrsky v Smith). Unilateral mistake: if one party makes a mistake about a term and the other knows or ought to know of it, the contract can be set aside, or rectified so that the document matches the real agreement, which needs clear proof of the prior agreement. Mistaken identity by a fraudster: if the fraudster impersonates a real person or firm that the other party intended to deal with, the contract is void and no title passes (Cundy v Lindsay); if the fraudster invents a fictitious person or company, the seller intended to deal with the writer of the letters, so the contract is voidable and title passes until it is avoided, which protects a good-faith buyer who bought first (King's Norton Metal v Edridge).
Application (a). "My Fender" fits two guitars, and each party held a different, reasonable understanding, so on a Raffles analysis the parties were not ad idem and there is no contract. A court will first try to settle the matter objectively. If the 1962 Stratocaster is worth many times $6,000, a reasonable person would think that $6,000 points to the 1978 Telecaster and the court would enforce the deal on Greg's terms, so Fatima's belief was not reasonable. If both guitars are worth around $6,000 and nothing else favours one reading, Raffles applies and the agreement is void for mutual mistake, with each party free to walk away.
Application (b). Greg is mistaken about the price in the document and Fatima knows it, since she knew the real price from the phone call. A party cannot take advantage of an error she knows about. Greg can ask the court to rectify the written contract to read $12,000, using the phone agreement and her own knowledge as proof, or he can have the contract set aside and return her deposit. Fatima's argument that Greg is bound by what he signed does not help someone who knew the document was wrong.
Application (c). The deciding fact is whether the fraudster used the name of a real firm that Greg knew and meant to deal with. That is the case here, since "Patel Music Ltd" is a real shop Greg had dealt with and wanted as his buyer. As in Cundy v Lindsay, Greg's mistake about who he was contracting with was fundamental, so the contract was void and no title passed to the fraudster, who therefore could not pass title to Hannah. Hannah, though innocent, will probably have to return the guitar, and she can pursue the fraudster for her $3,000 if he can be found. If the fraudster had instead invented a company that does not exist, the result would flip under King's Norton: the contract would be voidable only, title would pass, and Hannah would keep the guitar if she bought before Greg avoided the contract.
Conclusion. (a) Probably a contract for the 1978 Telecaster if the price points that way, otherwise void under Raffles; (b) rectification to $12,000, or rescission, because Fatima knew of the error; (c) the contract is void under Cundy v Lindsay, so Greg can recover the guitar from Hannah.
Short on time: (a) Raffles, objective test first, (b) unilateral mistake known to the other side so rectify or rescind, (c) real firm means void (Cundy), fictitious firm means voidable (King's Norton), conclusion on each.
Q6Likely
Beatrice, 82 and recently widowed, has relied for twelve years on Colin, her investment adviser at Lakeshore Wealth Ltd, who manages her $400,000 account with full discretion to buy and sell without asking her. Over two years Colin moves money into Sunrise Solar Inc., a private company owned by his brother-in-law, starting with 5 percent of her account and rising to 40 percent. He tells her the investment is "guaranteed and safer than your bonds." He does not tell her that Sunrise paid him a $20,000 referral fee. Sunrise goes bankrupt and Beatrice loses $160,000. Colin says, "I was sure it was a winner." Advise Beatrice, and discuss any ethical issues.
How to answer
Use the ad hoc fiduciary test from Frame v Smith (three parts) and apply each part to the facts, then identify the breaches (conflict, secret profit, no disclosure), then add negligent misrepresentation with the Hercules test as a second route, then remedies, vicarious liability of the firm, and ethics (incrementalism and overconfidence bias, grounded in a normative framework).
Answer
Issue. Did Colin owe Beatrice a fiduciary duty and breach it; did he also make a negligent misrepresentation; who is liable; and what remedies does Beatrice have?
Rule. A fiduciary relationship may be recognized by category (trustee, director under OBCA s. 134(1)) or ad hoc on the facts. Frame v Smith asks whether (1) the alleged fiduciary has scope for the exercise of some discretion or power, (2) can unilaterally exercise it so as to affect the beneficiary's legal or practical interests, and (3) the beneficiary is peculiarly vulnerable to or at the mercy of the fiduciary. A fiduciary owes a duty of loyalty and good faith: avoid conflicts of interest, make no secret profit, and disclose. For negligent misrepresentation (Hercules Management v Ernst & Young) the plaintiff must show a false statement, a duty of care (with policy limits such as indeterminate liability under Deloitte v Livent), reasonable reliance, a breach of the standard of care, and loss. An employer is vicariously liable for an employee's torts in the course of employment.
Application. Fiduciary status: Colin had full discretion over the account (part 1), he could move her money unilaterally and so change her financial position (part 2), and Beatrice, elderly, newly widowed, long dependent on him and with no investing expertise, was peculiarly vulnerable (part 3). All three parts are met, so he was an ad hoc fiduciary. Breach: placing client money in his brother-in-law's company is a conflict of interest, he took a $20,000 referral fee that he kept secret, and he never disclosed either fact, so he preferred his own interest over hers. Colin will argue that the loss was a business risk and that Sunrise's collapse was not his fault, and that he sincerely believed in it. Neither is a defence to breach of loyalty, because the wrong lies in the conflict and the concealment, not in whether the investment would have succeeded.
Negligent misrepresentation: "guaranteed and safer than your bonds" is a statement of fact about the nature of the investment (it is not an opinion), it was false, he held himself out as an expert and she relied on him, so a duty of care arose and reliance was reasonable. A single known client means that indeterminate liability (Livent) is not a concern. He fell below the standard of a careful adviser, and she lost $160,000. This claim stands as an alternative if the fiduciary claim fails. Responsibility: Colin acted in the course of his employment, so Lakeshore Wealth Ltd is vicariously liable, and it may also be directly liable for failing to supervise. Remedies: Beatrice can claim that Colin account for the $20,000 secret fee, compensation for her losses, and, in an appropriate case, a constructive trust over any proceeds he holds (these equitable remedies are textbook rather than slide material, so keep the line short). Her own fault is slight, since she was entitled to trust him.
Conclusion. Beatrice will very likely succeed against Colin and Lakeshore Wealth Ltd for breach of fiduciary duty and, alternatively, for negligent misrepresentation.
Ethics. Incrementalism: the move from 5 percent to 40 percent was a series of small steps, each only slightly more than the last, so no single step felt like a line being crossed. Overconfidence bias: "I was sure it was a winner" shows an adviser who overestimated his own judgment and so never guarded against the risk. Normative framework: on a duty-based view Colin broke his duty of loyalty by putting his own gain first; on a consequences-based view the large harm to Beatrice far outweighs the fee he earned. Risk management for the firm: written conflict-of-interest disclosure, concentration limits, independent review of related-party investments, and compliance monitoring.
Short on time: Frame v Smith three parts applied, breach (conflict, secret fee, no disclosure), negligent misrepresentation (Hercules) as the alternative, firm vicariously liable, remedies in one line, incrementalism and overconfidence named with a framework, conclusion.
Timed 2-hour mock exam in Keith's format (53 marks)
This mock copies the shape of the real paper described in Keith's deck and shown by the Winter 2026 midterm: seven short-answer questions and one multiple choice question, 53 marks, 2 hours, one story cut into eight mini-problems, Ontario law. The paper is mine, not Keith's. It deliberately tests items from Keith's topic list that the old exams have not used yet (nuisance, false imprisonment and malicious prosecution, product liability and occupiers' liability, necessity, a director's corporate opportunity) together with the topics that every old exam has tested (negligence, defamation, contract formation, capacity). Everything on it is inside your midterm scope.
How to use it: write it by hand, with the cheat sheet you plan to bring if aids are allowed (and, if you can, write a second paper with no sheet at all, since Fall 2023 was closed book), set a 120-minute timer, and do not open the marking guide until the timer ends. Plan about two minutes per mark: roughly 22 minutes each for Q1 and Q2, 13 minutes each for Q3, Q4, Q5 and Q8, 15 minutes for Q7, 3 minutes for Q6, and a few minutes to reread. Then mark yourself against the guide and note which topics cost you marks.
The paper
This exam is marked out of 53 marks and is 2 hours long. For each question, and where appropriate, discuss all counterarguments, any applicable defences, and the damages or remedy the client can expect to receive. For the multiple choice question, circle the correct answer. Apply Ontario law.
Aurora Live Inc. is a closely held Ontario corporation that runs the Maple Ridge Music Festival on rented farmland outside Guelph. Its directors are Priya, who runs operations, Marcus, and Helen, an outside accountant.
Q1 (10 marks). On March 1, Sofia, Aurora's booking manager, emails Jax Mercer, the manager of the band Static Orchard: "We would like Static Orchard to headline on Saturday, July 18 for a fee of $40,000. This offer is open until March 8." On March 4 Jax replies: "Happy to do it at $40,000 as long as Aurora also covers a hospitality and hotel rider, details to follow next week." Sofia does not answer. On March 7 at 9:00 AM, after booking another headliner, Sofia emails Jax: "Our offer is withdrawn." Jax reads it that afternoon and replies at 4:00 PM: "Forget the rider. We accept your offer at $40,000." Static Orchard now threatens to sue if Aurora does not let it play. Separately, Aurora signed a solo opening act, Noor, who is 17. Noor signed an agreement to perform for $8,000 "plus a fair share of merchandise profits, to be agreed after the festival". Noor has had a better offer from another festival and wants out. Advise Aurora on whether it is bound to Static Orchard and whether it can hold Noor to her agreement.
Q2 (10 marks). Aurora hires Steelline Fencing Ltd to supply and install crowd barriers in front of the main stage. Steelline's installer, Dev, sets the panels using stakes shorter than the manufacturer's instructions require, because the ground is soft and he is behind schedule. The panels were made by Barrier Co., and a later test shows that their welds are weaker than the industry standard. Aurora's own policy is that its safety inspector, Tom, must inspect every structure before the gates open. On opening day Priya tells Tom there is no time and to "just sign it off", and he does. During the headline set a surge in the crowd collapses a barrier. Mateo, a front-row ticket holder, breaks his arm. Lena, who ignored the signs and the announcements telling people not to climb the barrier and was climbing it to reach the stage when it collapsed, breaks her ankle. Both want to sue. Identify all the potential defendants and analyze the claims.
Q3 (6 marks). Gloria runs an organic berry farm and farm stand next to the field Aurora rents for festival parking. For three nights the festival's amplified music plays until 2:00 AM, and dust and diesel fumes from 3,000 cars drift over her berry fields, which cuts her pick-your-own business. On the Saturday, festival traffic also blocks the only public road to her farm stand for twelve hours, so no customers can reach it, and she loses $18,000 in sales. Aurora says it had a municipal permit for the festival. Advise Gloria.
Q4 (6 marks). Omar, a fan, is walking to the exit with a large bag. Dale, a security guard employed by Aurora, thinks it is full of stolen speakers, tells Omar he cannot leave, walks him to a locked staff trailer and keeps him there for 90 minutes while he waits for the police. The bag holds Omar's jacket and a thermos. While Omar waits, Marcus tells the police that Omar "is a known thief who stole from us last year", which is false: Marcus has confused him with someone else. The police charge Omar after speaking to Marcus. The charge is withdrawn at the first court date. Advise Omar.
Q5 (6 marks). After the festival, Rae, the singer of Static Orchard, posts on Instagram: "Aurora Live pays performers late and its director Priya pocketed the festival's insurance money." Aurora did pay one band two weeks late. Priya has never taken any insurance money, and Rae has no evidence that she did. The post is seen by 200,000 people. Two sponsors cancel, costing Aurora $60,000, and Priya loses a consulting contract. Advise Priya and Aurora on a claim against Rae.
Q6 (2 marks). On April 1 Jess, a web developer, rebuilds Aurora's ticket website for free because she wants the exposure. Aurora did not ask her to. On May 1 Aurora's CEO emails her: "Thanks, I'll pay you $5,000 for that work." Aurora never pays and Jess sues. You advise her: (a) she will win because the promise was in writing; (b) she will win because there was an offer, acceptance and consideration; (c) she will probably lose, because the promise was made after the work was finished, so it is past consideration; (d) she will win because the work was valuable to Aurora; (e) she will lose, because a corporation cannot contract with an individual.
Q7 (7 marks). The board has told Marcus to look for more land for the festival's expansion. Through a landowner he met on Aurora's business, Marcus learns that the 200-acre field next to the festival site is about to be sold. He tells neither Priya nor Helen. He buys the field personally, through his own holding company, for $2,000,000, intending to sell it to Aurora for $3,500,000 once Aurora's expansion plans are approved. Priya finds out. Aurora is short of cash and says it could not have bought the field itself. Advise Aurora.
Q8 (6 marks). On a 35°C afternoon Sam sees a dog panting heavily in a locked car in the festival parking field. He asks two security guards for help, and they say they will "get to it later". Ten minutes later the dog is lying down and barely moving. Sam smashes the car's rear window with a rock, lifts the dog out and gives it water. The owner, Pat, sues Sam for the window and for frightening the dog. Advise Sam.
Stop here: write the paper before you read further
Marking guide and model answers Open it only after you have written the paper
Marks in brackets show where the points are earned. Give yourself the mark if you made the point in your own words, even if your wording was shorter. Keith's rule applies: marks go to the issue-spotting and the analysis, not to whether you land on the same conclusion.
Q1 (10 marks). How to answer: Two issues. For Static Orchard, walk the emails in order and say what each one did to the offer. For Noor, apply the capacity rule and the certainty rule. Answer: Issue 1. Is Aurora bound to Static Orchard? (1)
Rule. A contract needs offer, acceptance and consideration, and the terms must be certain. A counter-offer rejects the original offer and ends it, and the other side is then free to accept or reject the counter-offer. Silence is not acceptance. An offer may be withdrawn before it is accepted, and a withdrawal takes effect when it is communicated. An agreement to agree on an essential term cannot be enforced. (1)
Application. Sofia's March 1 email is an offer: it names the act, the date, the fee and a deadline (1). Jax's March 4 reply adds a new term, a hospitality and hotel rider, so it is a counter-offer. It rejects the original offer and ends it (2). Jax's March 7 "we accept" therefore has nothing to accept: at most it is a new offer, and Aurora never accepted it (1). Jax will argue that his March 4 email was only a request about the rider and that the offer stayed open until March 8. Even then Aurora withdrew at 9:00 AM on March 7, before his 4:00 PM acceptance, and a withdrawal likely takes effect when the email arrives, not when he chooses to read it (1). And the rider, "details to follow", is an agreement to agree on a cost term, which is too uncertain to enforce (1).
Conclusion. There is probably no contract, so Aurora is not bound and has no liability for booking another headliner (1). Issue 2. Can Aurora hold Noor, a 17-year-old, to her agreement? Rule. A minor's contract is voidable at the minor's election, except contracts for necessaries and beneficial contracts of service; a minor may affirm on reaching majority. Application. Noor is under 18 and a performance agreement is not a necessary, so it is voidable at her election and she can walk away (Keith's Winter 2026 key treats an entertainment agreement this way) (1). Aurora can argue it was a beneficial contract of service (an engagement to perform for pay), which would bind her, but the agreement is also uncertain on the merchandise share, "to be agreed", which is an agreement to agree (1). Conclusion. Aurora probably cannot hold Noor, and should have had a parent or guardian co-sign and fixed the merchandise share (1).
Q2 (10 marks). How to answer: Build the grid: two plaintiffs against Aurora, Steelline and Barrier Co. (and Tom, the inspector). Do the four-part test once for each defendant, with causation kept separate because several things went wrong together. Then handle the two plaintiffs differently: Mateo has no fault, Lena has contributory negligence and a risk argument. Answer: Issue. Can Mateo and Lena succeed in negligence, occupiers' liability and product liability against Aurora, Steelline and Barrier Co.? (1)
Rule. Negligence needs duty, breach of the standard of care (that of a reasonable person with the same expertise), causation (but for) and damages. An occupier must take reasonable care to see that people on the premises are reasonably safe (Occupiers' Liability Act s. 3(1)). A manufacturer owes consumers a duty of care to make its product safe (Donoghue v Stevenson). An employer is vicariously liable for an employee's negligence. A defendant need not be the only cause. Contributory negligence reduces damages. Voluntary assumption of risk requires that the plaintiff knew of the risk and agreed to give up the right to sue, and under s. 4 an occupier whose entrant willingly takes a risk must still avoid deliberate harm and reckless disregard. (2)
Application. Aurora (3): it is the occupier and Mateo and Lena are ticket holders. A reasonable organizer does not open the gates on a crowd barrier it has not inspected. Aurora's own policy required an inspection and Priya told Tom to "just sign it off", so there is breach by Aurora directly, and it is also vicariously liable for Tom, its employee. Causation: a surge at a concert is foreseeable, and a proper inspection would have found the short stakes, so but for the sign-off the barrier would not have been used. Steelline (1): it owed a duty to the crowd and breached it by ignoring the manufacturer's instructions on stakes, and it is vicariously liable for Dev. Barrier Co. (1): as manufacturer it owed users a duty and used welds below the industry standard, a manufacturing defect, though causation is less certain because the stakes may have been the real reason the barrier fell; each defendant will blame the others, but the plaintiffs need only show each was a cause, and the court shares the loss. Damages (1): general damages for pain and suffering and special damages for medical costs and lost income, for each plaintiff. Defences (1): Mateo has none. Lena ignored the signs and announcements, so she is contributorily negligent and her damages are reduced, probably substantially. Voluntary assumption of risk fails, because she did not agree to give up a claim, and even if s. 4 applied, Aurora's decision to skip the inspection could be reckless disregard. Conclusion. Mateo likely succeeds against all three, with Aurora and Steelline the strongest. Lena also likely succeeds against Aurora and Steelline, with a large reduction for her own fault (1).
Q3 (6 marks). How to answer: Two nuisance claims. Private nuisance for the noise and fumes, public nuisance for the road, which gives special damage. Then the permit defence and remedies. Answer: Issue. Can Gloria succeed in private and public nuisance against Aurora? (0.5)
Rule. Nuisance is a strict liability tort, so fault is not needed. Private nuisance is a substantial and unreasonable interference with an occupier's use and enjoyment of land; a court weighs the severity and duration of the interference, the character of the area, how sensitive the plaintiff is, and how useful the defendant's activity is. Public nuisance is an interference with the lawful use of public lands, such as a road; a private person can sue only for special damage, loss that is greater than the public's general inconvenience. (1.5)
Application. Private nuisance (2): three nights of amplified music until 2:00 AM and dust and diesel fumes over her berry fields interfere substantially with her use of the land and her business. The interference lasted only a weekend and a festival has social value, but a rural farm is a quiet area, and Aurora could have set earlier sound cut-offs and controlled dust, so the interference is likely unreasonable. Public nuisance (1.5): blocking the only public road for twelve hours interferes with the public's right to use it, and Gloria suffered special damage, $18,000 in lost sales, which is more than the public's general inconvenience. Defence (0.5): the municipal permit helps only if the harm was an unavoidable result of what the permit allowed, and these harms were avoidable. Remedies (0.5): damages (the $18,000 and crop or business losses) and an injunction limiting hours and traffic next time. Conclusion. Gloria will likely succeed, most clearly on the road blockage.
Q4 (6 marks). How to answer: False imprisonment against Dale and Aurora (Collis test), then malicious prosecution against Marcus (Curley v Taafe test), noting that the weak element is malice. Answer: Issue. Can Omar succeed in false imprisonment against Dale and Aurora, and in malicious prosecution against Marcus? (0.5)
Rule. False imprisonment (Collis v Toronto Police Services Board): an intentional, total confinement of a person against that person's will, without lawful justification; confinement can be psychological as well as physical. Malicious prosecution (Curley v Taafe): the defendant initiated the prosecution, it ended in the plaintiff's favour, there was no reasonable and probable cause, and the defendant acted with malice. (1.5)
Application. False imprisonment (2): Dale told Omar he could not leave and kept him in a locked trailer for 90 minutes, which is intentional, total confinement against his will. A suspicion based on a large bag is not lawful justification, and Dale did not catch Omar committing an offence. Aurora is vicariously liable because Dale was its employee acting in the course of his job. Omar can claim general damages for loss of liberty and humiliation, and punitive damages if the conduct was high-handed. Malicious prosecution (2): Marcus initiated the prosecution, because the police charged Omar after he gave them false information (the police's own decision does not protect someone who supplied the false story); the charge was withdrawn, which is a result in Omar's favour; and Marcus had no reasonable and probable cause, since he had confused Omar with someone else. The weak point is malice, which needs an improper purpose: a careless mix-up is not malice, although stating a falsehood to push police into charging may allow a court to infer it. Conclusion. The false imprisonment claim is strong against Dale and Aurora; malicious prosecution is possible but likely fails on malice (0.5).
Q5 (6 marks). How to answer: Split the two statements. "Pays performers late" is partly true. "Pocketed the insurance money" is false and accuses Priya of theft. Take the elements, then the defences one by one, then damages, and say who can sue for what. Answer: Issue. Can Priya and Aurora succeed in defamation against Rae? (0.5)
Rule. The plaintiff must prove that the words were defamatory (they would lower the plaintiff's reputation in the eyes of a reasonable person), referred to the plaintiff, and were communicated to at least one other person. A post on social media is a permanent form, so it is libel. Defences include truth, qualified privilege (lost by malice) and responsible communication on a matter of public interest. A company can sue for harm to its reputation. (1.5)
Application. Priya (2): "pocketed the insurance money" accuses her of theft, refers to her by name and was seen by 200,000 people, so the elements are met. Truth fails because she took nothing. Qualified privilege does not apply to a public post to an audience with no duty or interest. Responsible communication fails because Rae had no evidence and did not check. Aurora (1): the "pays late" statement is partly true, since one band was paid two weeks late, so truth likely protects most of it, although it overstates one late payment into a habit; the insurance allegation also harms Aurora's reputation because it accuses its director of theft. Damages (1): general damages for harm to reputation, special damages for the $60,000 in sponsors and Priya's lost contract if causation is shown, and punitive damages if Rae acted maliciously. Conclusion. Priya has a strong claim; Aurora's claim is good on the insurance allegation and weak on the late-payment allegation (0.5).
Q6 (2 marks). Answer: Conclusion. (c). Aurora's promise came after Jess finished the work, and Aurora had not asked her to do it, so the work is past consideration: it was not given in exchange for the promise and cannot support it. Option (a) is wrong because writing does not replace consideration. Option (b) is wrong because the consideration is missing. Option (d) is wrong because value to the promisor does not matter if it was not exchanged for the promise. Option (e) is wrong because a corporation has capacity to contract.
Q7 (7 marks). How to answer: Marcus is a director, so the relationship is fiduciary by category, and you need not run the three-part test, although it is safe to mention it. State the duties, apply them to the concealment and the resale, deal with the excuse that Aurora could not have bought the field, and finish with remedies. Answer: Issue. Has Marcus breached his fiduciary duty to Aurora, and what remedies does Aurora have? (0.5)
Rule. A director is a fiduciary of the corporation by category and must act honestly and in good faith in the corporation's best interests. A fiduciary must act solely in the beneficiary's best interests, avoid conflicts of interest, not profit personally from the position without informed consent, and disclose all material information and opportunities. A director may not take for himself a corporate opportunity that arises through the role. Remedies are an account of profits, equitable compensation, and a constructive trust over the property. (1.5)
Application. Marcus is a director, and the board had told him to look for land, so the field was an opportunity within his role and of clear interest to Aurora (1.5). He kept it secret, bought it personally and planned to resell it to Aurora at a $1,500,000 markup, so he put his own interest in conflict with Aurora's, did not disclose, and sought a secret profit (2). His excuse that Aurora could not have bought it is not a defence: the duty was to disclose and let the board decide whether it could finance the purchase (0.5). Remedies (1): an account of profits, so Marcus gives up any profit he makes on the field; a constructive trust, so that he must transfer the field to Aurora at his cost of $2,000,000; or equitable compensation. Conclusion. Aurora has a very strong claim for breach of fiduciary duty (0).
Q8 (6 marks). How to answer: The tort is easy (intentional damage to property), so say so quickly and spend your time on the defence of necessity, using Keith's wording (no other option but to commit the tort), and give Pat's best counter-argument. Answer: Issue. Is Sam liable to Pat for the damage, or does necessity excuse him? (0.5)
Rule. Smashing someone's window on purpose is an intentional interference with property, which makes out the tort; the burden then shifts to the defendant to prove a defence. Necessity is a defence where there was no other option but to commit the tort, there was a real and imminent danger, and the harm caused was proportionate to the harm avoided. (1.5)
Application. The tort is made out: Sam broke the window deliberately (0.5). Necessity (3): the danger was real and imminent, since a dog was panting heavily in a locked car at 35°C and then lay down and barely moved; Sam first asked the guards for help and they delayed, so he had tried the reasonable alternative; waiting for the owner or police was not practical when the dog was failing; and breaking one window was proportionate to the risk of the dog's death. Pat will argue that Sam could have called the police or animal services first and could not be sure the situation was an emergency, and that the dog was frightened. These points weaken the defence only if Sam had realistic time and means to do something else. Conclusion. Necessity likely succeeds and Sam is not liable (0.5).
Score yourself
45 to 53 (85% and up): you are ready, so keep rehearsing the cheat sheet. 37 to 44 (70 to 84%): solid; check where marks went, usually a missing defence or no counter-argument. 29 to 36 (55 to 69%): re-read the summary for each lost question and redo the matching real question from Keith's old exams. Below 29: redo the Winter 2026 and Fall 2023 questions before attempting another full paper. The marks most often lost on handwritten law exams are forgetting to name the test or case, skipping the other side's best argument, ignoring the defences and remedies that the paper's instructions ask for, and not stating a conclusion, so check for those first.
Extra mock paper for the final exam (older format, beyond the midterm scope)
Do not use this paper to practise for the midterm. I wrote it before Keith's materials arrived, as a 100-mark paper in an estimated format, and it tests material beyond the midterm scope (guarantees and indemnities, void and voidable contracts, delivery-slip terms, good faith under Bhasin). Use the Fall 2026-format mock in the previous section for the midterm, and keep this one for the final exam.
This is a full practice paper built to match what we know about the real one: 2 hours, handwritten, IRAC. Keith has not posted a practice midterm or a mark breakdown, so the structure and marks below are an estimate of a sensible paper, not his. Use it to practise timing and writing, not to guess the real mark allocation.
How to use it: write the paper by hand on lined paper with the cheat sheet you plan to bring, set a 2-hour timer, and do not look at the marking guide until the timer ends. Then mark yourself honestly against the guide and note which topics cost you marks.
Suggested time plan (100 marks over 120 minutes, about 1.2 minutes per mark): Section A 35 minutes, Section B 40 minutes, Section C 40 minutes, 5 minutes to reread. If a problem has four parts worth 14, 6, 8 and 6 marks, spend your time in the same proportions.
The paper
Section A: Short answers (32 marks; 8 questions at 4 marks each; answer all)
A1. Define battery and assault, explain the difference, and give an example of each.
A2. State the Kamloops v Nielsen test for a duty of care and explain what each step asks.
A3. Explain contributory negligence and voluntary assumption of risk, and say what effect each has on the plaintiff's claim.
A4. Distinguish an offer from an invitation to treat, and give an example of an invitation to treat.
A5. State the rule in Foakes v Beer and explain how Ontario law has changed it.
A6. Distinguish a void contract from a voidable contract, and give one example of each.
A7. What is the difference between a guarantee and an indemnity, and why does it matter?
A8. What does the duty of honest performance in Bhasin v Hrynew require? Give an example of a breach.
Section B: Torts problem (34 marks)
Sam spends four hours at the Lakeside Pub drinking beer. By 11:00 PM he is slurring his words and the bartender has noticed, but the manager, Ms. Singh, has told staff: "We have never had a problem here, so keep serving; it is good for the numbers." At 11:30 PM Sam insults the doorman, Ali. Ali grabs Sam by the collar and shoves him out the door onto the sidewalk. It is January and -15°C, Sam's coat is inside, and the pub sits on a rural highway with no sidewalk lights. Sam staggers onto the road and is hit by a car driven by Lee, who was driving 30 km/h over the limit. Sam breaks his leg and suffers a head injury.
(a) Advise Sam whether the pub is liable to him in negligence. (14 marks)
(b) Is Ali liable for the shove, and is the pub responsible for what Ali did? (6 marks)
(c) Discuss the defences and the other parties' fault. (8 marks)
(d) Discuss any ethical issues raised by the pub's conduct. (6 marks)
Section C: Contracts problem (34 marks)
Aria runs a bakery. On Monday Zed Mills Ltd texts her: "500 kg bread flour at $900, delivered in two weeks. Reply by Wednesday noon if you want it." On Tuesday Aria texts back a thumbs-up emoji (👍). Two weeks later Zed delivers the flour with a delivery slip that Aria signs to confirm receipt. In small print the slip says that all disputes must be heard in Manitoba, that there are no refunds, and that unpaid amounts bear interest at 3 percent per month. Aria never reads it. She is short of cash, tells Zed she can pay only $600 and asks him to accept that as full payment of the $900. Zed's owner writes back, "OK, send $600 and we are square," and Aria pays $600. Six months later Zed sues Aria for the remaining $300 plus interest, and Zed's lawyer also says that Zed never made an offer in the first place, only gave a quote.
(a) Was a contract formed on Monday and Tuesday? (12 marks)
(b) Is Aria bound by the terms on the delivery slip? (8 marks)
(c) Can Zed recover the $300? (10 marks)
(d) Give a brief overall conclusion and one piece of practical advice for each party. (4 marks)
Stop here: write the paper before you read further
Marking guide and model answers Open it only after you have written the paper
Marks in brackets show where the points are earned. Award yourself the mark if you made the point in your own words, even if your wording was shorter.
Section A
A1 (4 marks). How to answer: define each tort with its elements, say the key difference (contact), then one example each. Answer: Battery is the intentional, harmful or offensive physical contact with another person without consent (1). Assault is an intentional act that causes the plaintiff to reasonably fear imminent harmful or offensive contact (1). The difference is that assault needs no contact, only apprehension, while battery needs contact (1). Example: swinging a fist and stopping short is assault; hitting the person is battery (1).
A2 (4 marks). How to answer: name the case, give the two steps in order, and say what each asks. Answer: Kamloops v Nielsen sets a two-step test. Step 1: is there a sufficiently close relationship that carelessness might reasonably be contemplated to cause damage, which is reasonable foreseeability of harm to this plaintiff (2). Step 2: are there considerations that negate or limit the scope of the duty, the class of persons owed it, or the damages that may result, which is the policy step (2).
A3 (4 marks). How to answer: define each, state the effect, and contrast them. Answer: Contributory negligence is the plaintiff's own failure to take reasonable care for their own safety that helped cause the harm (1); damages are reduced in proportion to the plaintiff's fault under the Negligence Act (1). Voluntary assumption of risk means the plaintiff knew of the risk and willingly accepted it (1); it is a complete defence, so the plaintiff recovers nothing (OLA s. 4, Schneider) (1).
A4 (4 marks). How to answer: define both by the intention to be bound, then give an example. Answer: An offer is a definite proposal that shows the offeror's intention to be bound as soon as the offeree accepts it (1.5). An invitation to treat only invites others to make offers and the person inviting is not bound (1.5). Examples: goods displayed with a price in a store, a catalogue, or an advertisement (1).
A5 (4 marks). How to answer: state the common law rule, then the Ontario statute. Answer: Foakes v Beer holds that a creditor's promise to accept less than the full debt is not binding because the debtor gives no new consideration, so the creditor may still sue for the balance (2). In Ontario the Mercantile Law Amendment Act s. 16 changed this: part payment that is actually made and expressly accepted by the creditor in satisfaction extinguishes the debt without new consideration (2).
A6 (4 marks). How to answer: define each by what happens to the contract, and pair each with a course example. Answer: A void contract is treated as never having existed, so no rights or title pass (1.5); example: mutual mistake as in Raffles v Wichelhaus, or a fraudster impersonating a real firm as in Cundy v Lindsay (0.5). A voidable contract is valid until the innocent party chooses to set it aside (1.5); example: a contract induced by misrepresentation, undue influence or duress, or a fictitious-firm fraud as in King's Norton (0.5).
A7 (4 marks). How to answer: define both by who is primarily liable, then link to the Statute of Frauds. Answer: A guarantee is a secondary promise to pay another person's debt if that person defaults (1); an indemnity is a primary promise to pay or to cover a loss whether or not the other person is liable (1). It matters because under the Statute of Frauds a guarantee must be in writing and signed by the guarantor to be enforceable (1), while an indemnity needs no writing (1).
A8 (4 marks). How to answer: state the duty in the Bhasin words, say it covers performance, and give a short example. Answer: Bhasin v Hrynew recognized that every Canadian contract has an organizing principle of good faith and a duty of honest performance (1.5). Parties must not lie to or knowingly mislead each other about matters directly linked to performance of the contract (1.5). Example: a supplier tells a dealer that the contract will be renewed while it has already decided not to renew (1).
Section B
How to answer: do each lettered part in IRAC order. For (a) run the four parts of the negligence test and use Menow and Murphy as the analogous cases the course gave; for (b) name battery and vicarious liability; for (c) name contributory negligence, voluntary assumption of risk and other people's fault; for (d) use incrementalism and overconfidence bias and tie them to a framework.
Answer: (a) Negligence by the pub (14 marks). Issue: is the pub liable in negligence for Sam's injuries (1)? Rule: duty, breach, causation, damage on a balance of probabilities (1). Duty (3): Donoghue and Kamloops. A commercial host that serves alcohol to a visibly intoxicated patron has a close relationship with him, and harm to an intoxicated person from being turned out in the cold near a highway is foreseeable. In Menow v Honsberger and Jordan House the court held that an innkeeper who ejected an intoxicated patron who was later hit by a car owed him a duty of care, and in Murphy v Little Memphis Cabaret a bar was liable for ejecting a patron into danger. No policy reason negates the duty. Breach (3): a reasonable licensed establishment would stop serving a visibly intoxicated patron, would not put him out into -15°C without his coat beside an unlit highway, and would arrange a taxi or a safe place to wait. The pub did none of these, and Ms. Singh's instruction to "keep serving" makes breach very likely. Causation (4): but for continuing to serve Sam and ejecting him in that state, he would not have been on the road. Lee's speeding is an intervening act, but it does not break the chain because being struck by a car is exactly the type of harm that makes ejecting an intoxicated person onto a road foreseeable (The Wagon Mound), and the pub need not be the sole cause. Damage (1): a broken leg and a head injury; special damages (medical costs, lost income) and general damages (pain and suffering). Conclusion (1): the pub is very likely liable.
(b) Ali's shove (6 marks). Ali's grabbing and shoving Sam is an intentional, harmful or offensive contact without consent, which is a battery (2). Insults do not justify force; the pub has no defence of self-defence or defence of property, because words alone are not an attack and Sam was not trespassing (1). The pub is vicariously liable because Ali was an employee and removing patrons is part of a doorman's job, so even excessive force is closely connected to his employment (2). The pub is therefore liable for Ali's battery as well as for its own negligence (1).
(c) Defences and other parties (8 marks). Contributory negligence (3): Sam's heavy drinking and his walking onto a dark highway fell below the care a reasonable person takes for his own safety, so a court may reduce his damages by a proportion; but he was visibly intoxicated and was forced out, so his share will be modest. Voluntary assumption of risk (2): fails, because Sam did not knowingly and willingly accept the risk and an intoxicated person cannot fairly be said to have done so; he also did not consent to being ejected. Lee (2): Lee was negligent in speeding 30 km/h over the limit, so fault can be apportioned between the pub, Lee and Sam under the Negligence Act, although the pub cannot escape liability by pointing to Lee. Conclusion (1): Sam recovers, with his award reduced for his own fault.
(d) Ethics (6 marks). Overconfidence bias (2): Ms. Singh's "we have never had a problem here" overestimates the pub's safety record and ignores a known risk. Incrementalism (2): serving one more drink to a patron, then another, then doing so as a habit to protect revenue became accepted practice, and ejecting a drunk patron seemed a small step beyond. Framework (1): on a duty-based view the pub failed its duty to care for patrons in its custody, and on a consequences-based view a small gain in sales does not justify serious harm. Risk management (1): a firm cut-off policy, training, a safe-ride program, and refusing to eject intoxicated patrons into danger.
Section C
How to answer: take (a) to (d) in order. For (a) decide offer, then acceptance (with the emoji case), then say consideration is clear. For (b) use Tilden. For (c) state the common law rule (Foakes v Beer), the Ontario fix (s. 16), and the estoppel alternative. Put the short conclusion at the end.
Answer: (a) Formation (12 marks). Issue: was there a contract on Monday and Tuesday (1)? Offer (3): Zed's text names the goods, the quantity, the price and the delivery time, and tells Aria to "reply by Wednesday noon if you want it." That is a definite proposal inviting acceptance and showing an intention to be bound, so it is an offer. A mere general price list or advertisement would be an invitation to treat, but this was directed to one person with a deadline, so Zed's argument that it was only a quote fails. Acceptance (5): Aria replied within the deadline, in the same medium and in response to the offer. A thumbs-up emoji can be a valid acceptance (South West Terminal v Achter Land, 2023 SKKB 116). Zed could argue that a thumbs-up might only mean "received" and is ambiguous, but courts interpret objectively using the surrounding circumstances (Sattva), and a reasonable person who had just been told to reply if she wanted the flour would read the emoji as "yes." Consideration and intention (2): Zed gives flour and Aria promises $900, which is consideration, and a commercial context creates a presumption of intention to be bound. Conclusion (1): a contract was formed on Tuesday.
(b) Delivery slip (8 marks). Issue: do the slip's terms bind Aria (1)? Rule (2): onerous or unusual terms in a standard-form document are not binding unless the other party brought them reasonably to the signer's attention (Tilden Rent-A-Car v Clendenning); terms must also be part of the contract at the time it is made. Application (4): the contract was formed on Tuesday on the terms in the texts, so terms that first appear two weeks later on a delivery slip were never agreed, and Aria gave no consideration for them. Even if the signed slip counted, a Manitoba forum clause, a no-refund clause and 3 percent monthly interest are onerous, Zed did nothing to highlight them, and Aria signed only to confirm receipt, so under Tilden the terms do not bind her. Conclusion (1): the small-print terms are not part of the contract.
(c) The $300 (10 marks). Issue: can Zed still recover the remaining $300 (1)? Rule (3): at common law, a promise to accept less than a full debt is not binding without new consideration (Foakes v Beer), so Zed could ordinarily sue for the balance. In Ontario, under the Mercantile Law Amendment Act s. 16, part payment that is actually paid and expressly accepted in satisfaction extinguishes the whole obligation without new consideration. Alternatively, promissory estoppel (Frito-Lay) holds a party to a clear promise not to enforce strict rights if the other party relied on it, and it works as a shield and not a sword. Application (5): Aria gave no new consideration for Zed's promise, so at common law Zed would win. But Zed's owner wrote, "send $600 and we are square," which is an express acceptance of part payment in satisfaction, and Aria actually paid $600, so s. 16 extinguishes the debt. Estoppel gives the same result: Zed clearly promised to take $600, Aria relied on it by paying, and she is using the promise defensively, as a shield. Conclusion (1): Zed's claim for the $300 and the interest fails.
(d) Conclusion and advice (4 marks). Aria is bound to the contract for $900 of flour, but the delivery-slip terms do not bind her and she owes nothing further because Zed accepted $600 in full satisfaction (2). Practical advice (2): Zed should state the terms, the method of acceptance and any onerous clause before the contract is formed and should say clearly whether a message is a binding offer or a price list; Aria should not rely on emojis in a commercial deal and should get her payment arrangement in writing.
Score yourself
85 to 100: you are ready, so keep rehearsing the cheat sheet. 70 to 84: solid; look at where marks went (usually missing a defence, or no counterargument). 55 to 69: re-read the topic summary for each lost question and redo the matching problem in the earlier sections. Below 55: do the short-answer sections again before attempting another full paper. The most common lost marks on handwritten law exams are forgetting to name the case behind a test, skipping the other side's best argument, and not stating a conclusion, so check for those three first.
Cheat sheet blueprint: what to put on the one double-sided page
Keith's deck tells you to make your own cheat sheet, adding details from the lectures and readings, and your course materials allow one 8.5 × 11 sheet written on both sides. The old midterms differed (Fall 2023 was closed book, Winter 2026 was open book), so confirm the aids rule, and whether the sheet may be typed, with Keith before you decide how small to go (typed text at 6 to 7 pt fits roughly three times what neat handwriting does). The blueprint below is built for neat handwriting, and each box is written in the shorthand you would actually copy.
Principles. Put on the sheet what you cannot reliably recall under pressure: case names with a one-line rule, tests with their numbered elements, statute names and section numbers, and an IRAC skeleton for each kind of problem. Leave off long explanations, because practising the problems teaches those. Lay the sheet out in the same order you will write the answers, so your eye moves down the page as your answer does. Leave about a tenth of the space blank for gaps you find during the mock exam. Finish a draft by about October 20, write the timed mock exam from the previous section using the sheet, then trim and fix it on October 22.
If you run out of room, cut in this order: the constitution line in Box 2, passing off, then the weaker case names. Never cut the negligence test, defamation and its defences, the fiduciary test, the misrepresentation test, inducing breach and unlawful interference (all tested on Keith's old exams), the formation rules, the capacity rule, or the IRAC skeletons. Contracts Boxes 6 to 10 (mistake, misrepresentation as a ground for setting aside, undue influence and duress, writing, interpretation) are final exam only, so leave them off your midterm sheet and use the space for the tort tests Keith has examined.
Handwriting shorthand: P = plaintiff, D = defendant, K = contract, neg = negligence, SoF = Statute of Frauds, rx = remedy, → = leads to, ≠ = not equal, V = void, VB = voidable, UE = unenforceable.
Side 1: Torts (and how to answer)
Box 1. IRAC. Issue (one sentence, conclusion first) → Rule (name the test and the case) → Application (every element, use the facts, give the other side's best argument, analogies) → Conclusion (clear, hedged to match the facts, recommend a step to cut risk). Define each legal term. Answer every question asked and give an example when asked. Plain, direct language.
Box 2. Basics. Civil: Plaintiff v Defendant, compensation (put P back where P would have been), balance of probabilities. Criminal: R v Accused, punishment, beyond a reasonable doubt. Sources of law: legislation, common law (stare decisis), equity, constitution. Constitution Act: s. 91 federal (banking, criminal law, copyright, currency, postal), s. 92 provincial (property and civil rights, hospitals, local matters); federalism, coordinate governments.
Box 3. Intentional torts (P proves every element; D must intend; actionable per se, so nominal damages possible).
Tort
Elements
Assault
intent + threat + reasonable apprehension of imminent harm (no contact)
Battery
intent + unlawful force or contact + no consent
Trespass
intent + enter land + no consent
Intentional infliction of mental suffering (Boucher v Wal-Mart, 2014 ONCA 419)
flagrant and outrageous; calculated to harm; visible and provable illness
False imprisonment (Collis, 2007)
intentional; total confinement against will; no lawful justification (not if police laid the charge)
Malicious prosecution (Curley v Taafe, 2019 ONCA 368)
D initiated; ended in P's favour; no reasonable and probable cause; malice
Defamation
defamatory + refers to P + published to a third person; libel written, slander spoken; defences: truth, privilege (qualified or absolute), responsible communication (Grant v Torstar, 2009 SCC 61)
Defences to intentional torts: consent (must be informed; cannot consent to death or severe harm), self-defence (necessary, proportionate; self, others or property), necessity, involuntariness, incapacity, legal authority.
Box 4. Strict liability (no fault): Dog Owners' Liability Act s. 2 (damages reduced for P's fault), Rylands v Fletcher (dangerous thing escapes), nuisance (private or public).
Box 5. Negligence (all four, on a balance of probabilities). (1) Duty: Donoghue v Stevenson, [1932] AC 562 (neighbour principle); Kamloops v Nielsen, [1984] 2 SCR 2: (a) close relationship so carelessness might cause harm (foreseeable), (b) policy limits on the scope of the duty, the class of persons and the damages. (2) Standard: reasonable person; professional (higher; specialist higher still; avoid conflicts); child (reasonable child of the same age, unless in an adult activity). (3) Causation: but-for (need not be the only cause; circumstantial evidence, res ipsa loquitur); remoteness: type of harm foreseeable, The Wagon Mound, [1961] AC 388. (4) Damage: special (quantifiable), general (pain), punitive (rare). Not actionable per se, so no damage means no negligence.
Box 6. Defences to negligence. Contributory negligence (partial, Negligence Act, apportion; P contributed to the incident, exposed self to risk, or failed to mitigate). Voluntary assumption of risk (full bar; P knew of and willingly accepted the risk by waiver, express consent or implied consent). Ex turpi causa (illegal act; rare).
Box 7. Special rules. Vicarious liability: employer jointly and severally liable for employees' torts in the course of employment. Product liability = negligence (design, manufacture, failure to warn; continuing duty to warn). Occupiers' Liability Act: s. 3(1) reasonable care so entrants are reasonably safe; trespassers get general humanity (no traps, no reckless disregard); s. 4 risks willingly assumed (Schneider).
Box 8. Misrepresentation and fiduciary. Hedley Byrne (no negligence claim for pure economic loss, so negligent misrepresentation). Negligent (Hercules): statement; false; duty (policy: indeterminate liability by time, class and amount, Livent); reasonable reliance; below standard; loss. Fraudulent: statement; false; D knows or is reckless; reliance; loss. Innocent: no duty or knowledge needed. Fiduciary: category (lawyer, doctor, director, OBCA s. 134(1)) or ad hoc, Frame v Smith, [1987] SCR 99: (1) discretion or power; (2) can use it unilaterally to affect P's interests; (3) P peculiarly vulnerable (all three). Duties: put the beneficiary first; no conflicts; disgorge profits.
Box 9. Business torts (keep: tested in Winter 2026 Q4). Inducing breach (Redtree): D knew of the contract, intended a breach, caused it, damages. Unlawful interference (A.I. Enterprises): unlawful act against a third party that intentionally causes P economic loss. Passing off (Kaastra): goodwill, deception, damage.
Box 10. Ethics. Overconfidence bias: overestimating your own knowledge or ability, so you take bigger risks. Incrementalism: small steps that each look harmless and add up to a serious compromise. Law ≠ ethics. Tie any ethical point to a normative framework (duty, consequences, fairness), and finish with a risk-management step.
Torts case list
Case
One-line rule
Donoghue v Stevenson
neighbour principle; origin of duty and of product liability
City of Kamloops v Nielsen
two-step duty test
Wagon Mound
remoteness: type of harm foreseeable
Hedley Byrne v Heller
pure economic loss; negligent misstatement
Hercules v Ernst & Young
negligent misrepresentation test
Deloitte v Livent
indeterminate liability limits the duty
Rylands v Fletcher
strict liability for a dangerous escape
Boucher v Wal-Mart
mental suffering test
Collis
false imprisonment test
Curley v Taafe
malicious prosecution test
Grant v Torstar
responsible communication defence
Frame v Smith
ad hoc fiduciary test
Schneider v St. Clair
OLA s. 4 risks willingly assumed
Menow v Honsberger / Murphy v Little Memphis
bar or innkeeper owes a duty to an intoxicated patron it ejects
Redtree; A.I. Enterprises; Kaastra
inducing breach; unlawful interference; passing off
Side 2: Contracts
Midterm scope: Boxes 1 to 5 are the seven elements of a contract and are on the midterm. Boxes 6 to 10, and the rows of the case list for mistake, misrepresentation as a ground for setting aside, undue influence, unconscionability, writing and interpretation, are beyond the midterm (impeachment, writing and interpretation). They are here for the final exam, so do not spend midterm sheet space on them.
Box 1. Seven elements. Core: offer, acceptance, consideration. Plus: intention to create legal relations, capacity, legality, certainty. Void = never existed; voidable = valid until the innocent party sets it aside.
Box 2. Offer. Definite, communicated, intended to bind on acceptance. Invitation to treat: shelf prices, ads, For Sale signs (the customer makes the offer). Counter-offer rejects the offer and creates a new one. Standard form: contra proferentem; Tilden v Clendenning (1978 ONCA): onerous terms must be brought to the signer's attention. Unilateral offer: accepted by performance.
Box 3. Acceptance. Final, unqualified, communicated (words or conduct; thumbs-up emoji valid, South West Terminal v Achter Land, 2023 SKKB 116). Revoke any time before acceptance (communicated), unless an option was paid for or sealed. Lapse at the stated time. Postal rule: mail and telegram only, effective when posted (Adams v Lindsell, 1818), even if lost (Household Fire v Grant, 1879). Ontario CPA ss. 7(2) and 8: a consumer cannot waive the right to Ontario courts.
Box 4. Consideration. The price promised (not the payment). Adequacy not examined. None for gifts, past acts (Roscorla v Thomas), or an existing legal duty. Part payment of a debt: Foakes v Beer (not binding) → Mercantile Law Amendment Act s. 16 (paid and accepted in satisfaction extinguishes the debt). A seal replaces consideration. Estoppel (Frito-Lay, 1976): existing relationship; promise to release a right; reasonable reliance and hardship; shield, not sword.
Box 5. Other elements. Intention: reasonable bystander; puffery is not binding. Capacity: minors (under 18) VB at the minor's option, bound for necessaries (quantum meruit) and beneficial employment, must repudiate on majority or ratify; mental incompetence same; unions and bands not separate entities; bankrupts limited. Legality: Criminal Code, Income Tax Act, Competition Act, public policy. Certainty: missing price, goods or time means void for uncertainty.
Box 6. Mistake (four types). (1) Terms: typo (VB at the option of the mistaken party if obvious); recording error → rectification (mutual; unilateral only if D knew); ambiguity with two equally reasonable meanings → void, Raffles v Wichelhaus (1864). (2) Subject matter: existence → void; value → only if it changes the quality, Hyrsky v Smith (1969). (3) Identity: real firm → void, Cundy v Lindsay; fictitious → VB, King's Norton v Edridge; innocent third party. (4) Non est factum: nature of the document, caused by the other's misrepresentation, P not careless; rare.
Box 7. Misrepresentation. Fact (not opinion; expert opinion counts as fact) + false + reliance + harm. Types: fraudulent, negligent, innocent. Silence only if there is a duty to disclose or a latent defect (otherwise caveat emptor). Esso v Mardon (1976): estimate given without disclosing known road changes. Re Gabriel (1975): no duty, buyer should inform himself. Remedies: rescission (back to pre-contract positions, promptly), damages for negligent or fraudulent.
Box 8. Undue influence, unconscionability, duress. Undue influence: domination (special relationship, dire circumstances, threat of prosecution, inequality) + unfair terms; independent legal advice helps; VB. Unconscionability: inequality of bargaining power + improvident bargain, Uber v Heller (SCC 2020). Duress: threats of violence or imprisonment (and illegitimate economic pressure leaving no realistic alternative); VB. Other remedies: rectification (rare), repudiation (breach of an essential term: end and sue, or affirm).
Box 9. Writing. Statute of Frauds categories: executor's promise, GUARANTEE, answering for another's tort, MARRIAGE, ratifying a minor's contract, performance not within ONE YEAR, LAND (capitals = the four to know cold). Guarantee = conditional on the debtor's default, needs writing; indemnity = primary, no writing. Writing: any form, several documents, electronic is fine, essential terms (parties, subject matter, price), signed by the party to be charged. No writing: UE not void; keep a deposit only as a defence; quantum meruit; a later memo before the suit works; D must plead it. Part performance: land + acts by P + unequivocally referable. Sale of Goods Act writing rule: not in Ontario or BC. CPA: B2C direct agreements over $50 in writing.
Box 10. Interpretation, good faith, implied terms. Sattva (2014 SCC 53): plain meaning, trade usage, factual matrix, contra proferentem, parol evidence rule nearly gone, presumption of enforcement, commercial reasonableness. Implied term: one the parties would have added had they considered it. Bhasin v Hrynew (2014 SCC 71): implied duty of good faith, honest performance. Sale of Goods Act s. 15 implied terms: fitness (reliance on seller's skill), merchantable quality (by description from a dealer), usage of trade; an express warranty does not cancel an implied one unless inconsistent; otherwise caveat emptor.
Contracts case and statute list
Case or statute
One-line rule
Tilden v Clendenning
onerous standard-form terms need reasonable notice
South West Terminal v Achter Land
thumbs-up emoji can accept
Adams v Lindsell; Household Fire v Grant
postal rule; applies even if lost
Roscorla v Thomas
past consideration is none
Foakes v Beer; Mercantile Law Amendment Act s. 16
part payment rule and the Ontario change
Frito-Lay
promissory estoppel, three parts
Raffles v Wichelhaus
two reasonable meanings, void
Hyrsky v Smith
mistake changing the quality of the thing
Cundy v Lindsay; King's Norton v Edridge
real firm void; fictitious firm voidable
Esso v Mardon; Re Gabriel
misrepresentation by non-disclosure; no duty, buyer informs himself
Uber v Heller
unconscionable arbitration clause
Sattva; Bhasin
interpretation; honest performance
Statute of Frauds; Sale of Goods Act s. 15; Consumer Protection Act
writing; implied terms; consumer writing and courts
Answer skeletons (write these in the margin of the sheet as five-line boxes)
Formation. Issue (was a K formed?) → Rule (offer, acceptance, consideration + intention, capacity, legality, certainty) → Apply in time order (offer vs invitation, counter-offer, revocation, lapse, postal rule, consideration, estoppel) → Conclusion.
Setting aside (final exam only). Issue (can the K be rescinded?) → Rule (mistake type, misrepresentation 4 elements and 3 types, undue influence 2 parts, duress, unconscionability) → Apply (fact vs opinion, duty to disclose, reliance, harm) → Remedy (void vs VB, rescission, damages, rectification) → Conclusion.
Writing (final exam only). Does the Statute of Frauds apply (guarantee vs indemnity, land, over one year, marriage)? → Enough writing (essential terms, signed by the party to be charged)? → If not UE, not void → part performance, deposit, quantum meruit → Conclusion.
Defamation (on every old midterm). Issue (can P sue D for the statement?) → Rule (defamatory + refers to P + communicated to someone else; libel written or permanent, slander spoken) → Split the statements (fact or opinion, game or real life, which are actually defamatory) → Defences one by one (truth, privilege and how malice defeats it, responsible communication) → Damages (general, special, punitive) → Conclusion.
Fiduciary. Issue → Rule (category, or the three-part test: scope for discretion, unilateral exercise affecting P's interests, peculiar vulnerability; then the four duties: best interests, avoid conflicts, no profit without consent, disclose) → Relationship → Each breach (conflict, secret profit, non-disclosure) → Excuse → Remedies (account of profits, constructive trust, equitable compensation) → Conclusion.
Misrepresentation. Issue → Rule (false statement of existing fact, not opinion, that induced the contract; test: statement of fact, false, reasonable reliance, loss) → Fact, opinion or puffery → Type by state of mind (fraudulent, negligent with a duty of care, innocent) → Inducement and reliance → Counter (should have checked, caveat emptor) → Remedies (rescission; damages for negligent or fraudulent) → Conclusion.
Business torts. Inducing breach: knew of the contract → inducement → breach → damage. Unlawful interference: unlawful act against a third party → intent to harm P economically → harm. Then vicarious liability for the employer, the "would have breached anyway" counter, and damages.
Capacity (minor). Under 18 → contract voidable at the minor's election → necessaries (food, clothing, shelter) and beneficial employment bind → affirm or avoid → affirm or repudiate on reaching majority → apply to each contract in the question.
Intentional torts and defences. Elements of each tort (briefly) → defences, which D must prove (consent, self-defence, necessity, involuntariness, incapacity, legal authority) → damages → Conclusion.
Your sheet in the last week
Reading week, October 12 to 16: write Winter 2026 and then Fall 2023 by hand against the clock without notes, mark them against Keith's answers, and start your sheet from the boxes above. The first class back (the week of October 19) is Keith's review: write his answers to the deck questions onto your sheet and into this guide. October 19 to 20: draft both sides of the sheet and test it on Q1 to Q6 of the full-problem section (skip the two marked Final exam only). October 21: write the mock exam in Keith's format, with the sheet and a timer. October 22: fix every gap the mock exposed, rewrite the sheet neatly, and stop adding things. October 23: light reread only. October 24: sleep, eat and arrive early with two pens.
Final exam only: privity and assignment
Keith's note ends the midterm before impeachment of a contract, and privity and assignment come after that, so they are not on the midterm. This short version is for the final exam.
Privity. Only the parties to a contract are bound by it or can sue on it, so a stranger has no contract remedy (but may sue in tort, which does not need privity). Exceptions: novation (end the old contract and make a new one with the third party, with everyone's consent, which releases the original party); vicarious performance (a third party performs for the promisor, who stays responsible, unless the contract needs personal performance); trusts (a settlor transfers property to a trustee for a beneficiary, who can enforce; a constructive trust is an equitable remedy that forces the notional trustee to perform, usually by transferring property); insurance beneficiaries (provincial statutes); an undisclosed principal can sue; leases and land (the new owner is bound by an existing lease); and exemption clauses, where a third party (employee, agent, director) may rely on the clause if the contracting parties intended to protect them and the third party's activities fall within the scope of the contract and the clause (London Drugs v Kuehne & Nagel, [1992] 3 SCR 299). An enurement clause extends rights to heirs, successors and assignees.
Assignment. An assignment transfers a party's contractual rights (benefits only, not obligations) to a third party; the right is a chose in action. The three people are the promisor (the other original party), the assignor (who transfers) and the assignee (who receives). A statutory (legal) assignment under the Conveyancing and Law of Property Act must be absolute, in writing, and followed by written notice to the promisor; the assignee can then sue the promisor alone. An equitable assignment fails one of those requirements, so the assignor stays a party and all three must be joined in the suit. Every assignment needs notice, not consent; if the promisor ignores notice and pays the assignor, it must pay again. The assignee takes no better title than the assignor had, so the promisor keeps its prior rights against the assignor, such as set-off and rescission. Assignment also happens by operation of law on death (to the estate) and bankruptcy (to the trustee).
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