MMidterm Practice DeckFall 2026 · Laurier BBA
BU 231 · Business Law

Midterm Practice Questions

The questions most likely to appear on the October 24 midterm, each with how to answer it and a model answer, built around Keith's real old midterms and review deck.

About the tags. Nobody outside the exam team knows the real questions. Very likely, Likely and Possible rank each question by how heavily the course stresses that skill, so learn the method behind each answer rather than the numbers. Questions tagged Final exam only cover impeachment of contracts, writing and interpretation, which Keith said are not on the midterm; they are kept for the final and left out of your progress count.

Start here: the exam, the IRAC method and how to use this guide

The midterm is Saturday October 24, 2026 at 5:00 PM (room to be announced), according to the review deck Keith sent on October 6, which labels these details "subject to change". Keith's covering note calls the date "October 25th", so confirm it on MyLS or with Keith; this guide uses the deck because it gives the weekday, date and time together. The deck says the paper has 7 short answer questions and 1 multiple choice question, which is exactly the shape of the Winter 2026 midterm. You write by hand and answer in IRAC. Your course materials say you may bring one 8.5 × 11 sheet written on both sides, and the deck tells you to build your own cheat sheet, but the two old midterms differed (Fall 2023 was closed book and Winter 2026 was open book), so confirm the aids rule at the review class. Your instructor is Keith Masterman.

The scope, in Keith's words: the midterm covers all the material on torts and the seven elements of a contract, up to but not including impeachment of a contract. The seven elements are offer, acceptance, consideration, intention to create legal relations, capacity, legality and certainty of terms. So Topic 1 and every tort are in, and these are out: setting aside a contract (mistake, duress, undue influence, unconscionability), contracts in writing (the Statute of Frauds and part performance), contract interpretation, good faith and privity. Misrepresentation stays in because Keith lists it with the torts and the Winter 2026 midterm tested it. The first class after reading week (October 12 to 16) is a review session where Keith will give the answers to the old-exam questions in his deck. This replaces my earlier, wider reading of the scope.

Where the questions come from. Before October 6 there was no old midterm or review sheet on MyLS, so the earlier sections of this guide were built from the lectures, the three assigned case problems (Chapter 4 Case Problem 2 on negligence, Chapter 6 Case Problem 3 on formation, Chapter 9 Case Problem 5 on misrepresentation) and the topics Keith gives whole slide decks. On October 6 Keith sent the real thing: his review deck with five old-exam questions, the Fall 2023 midterm with suggested answers, and the Winter 2026 midterm with a model answer key. Those take priority over everything else in this guide, so they now sit first, in their own sections right after this one, with Keith's answers condensed into the IRAC format. The older sections still teach the rules and give you more practice, but their likelihood tags are my ranking from before I saw the old exams, so re-rank them with the table in the next section, which shows which topics Keith has actually tested. "Very likely" means the topic sits on several signals, "Likely" means one strong signal, "Possible" means in scope but lightly emphasised, and "Final exam only" means it is beyond the midterm scope Keith gave you.

How Keith wants answers written

His practice notes say they are not full answers because on an exam he expects "a full analysis of the question". The course skill is IRAC (also written IDAC or CRAC), and the exam is graded on whether you spot every issue, state the test with its case, apply it element by element with both sides, and finish with a conclusion that recommends a course of action to minimise legal risk.

Step What to write Stem you can copy
Issue One sentence naming the legal question and the parties "The issue is whether Ben can sue Cara in negligence for the injuries he suffered."
Rule The test or elements, with the leading case or statute, defined in your own words "Negligence requires (1) a duty of care, (2) breach of the standard of care, (3) causation, and (4) damages (Donoghue v Stevenson; Kamloops v Nielsen)."
Application Take each element in turn, apply the facts, then give the other side's best argument and say who wins on that element "Cara is likely to argue that … however, … so this element is probably met."
Conclusion A short prediction plus a risk-management recommendation "Ben will likely succeed on a balance of probabilities; Cara should settle and fix the hazard."

His writing tips, from the first-week slides: be point-first (state your conclusion early), use simple direct language, define each legal concept instead of assuming the reader knows it, read the question for more than one task, and give an example when one is asked for. If a question has several legal risks, treat each issue separately ("rinse, wash and repeat") and do not stop after the first one you find. Always name the party you are advising and use "likely" and "unlikely" rather than certainty, because, as the sample memo says, all legal cases have risk.

How to spot the issue from the facts

If the facts show … Think … Go to
someone hit, touched, threatened, locked in, accused or insulted on purpose intentional tort and its defences Intentional torts section
carelessness that hurt a person or property negligence, then defences, then vicarious liability Negligence section
a hurt visitor on a property, or a dangerous product occupiers' liability or product liability Occupiers and products section
a wrong statement that induced a deal misrepresentation (tort and contract) Misrepresentation sections
a director or professional with a personal interest fiduciary duty, conflict of interest, corporate opportunity Fiduciary section
an ad, a message, a reply, a deadline offer, acceptance, revocation, postal rule Formation 1
a promise with nothing given in return, a smaller payment, a promise after a sale consideration, past consideration, estoppel Formation 2
a minor, a company, a bad purpose, vague terms capacity, legality, certainty Formation 2
a wrong belief, a lie, pressure, an unfair deal mistake, misrepresentation, undue influence, duress, unconscionability Setting aside
a deal promised orally for land, marriage, a guarantee, more than a year Statute of Frauds, part performance Writing section
a dispute over what a clause means Sattva, contra proferentem, implied terms, good faith Interpretation section

How the rest of this guide works

Each topic section has short-answer questions (definitions and tests, usually worth a few marks) and fact-pattern questions (the real core of the exam). Every question has three parts: the question, "How to answer" (the method and the elements to hit), and "Answer" (a model answer you can compare with your own). The questions in the three sections right after this one are real: they come from Keith's old midterms and review deck, and their answers follow Keith's own suggested answers. The fact patterns in the topic sections were written by me in the style of the course, not taken from an exam, so use them to practise the method. Near the end you will find several full multi-issue problems, a timed two-hour mock with a marking guide, and a blueprint for the cheat sheet. In the issue-spotting table above, the last three rows (setting aside, writing, interpretation) are final exam material, and the sections on setting aside a contract and on contracts in writing and interpretation, plus two of the full problems, are labelled "Final exam only": skip them until the midterm is over.

Two cautions about sources. First, a few well-known cases that appear in the textbook but are not named anywhere on MyLS (Cooper v Hobart, Mustapha v Culligan, Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball and Pharmaceutical Society v Boots) are marked "textbook" when they appear, so you can decide whether to cite them. Second, where the lecture notes and slides give slightly different wording for a test, the model answers use the wording from Keith's slides and notes, because that is the wording he will be looking for.

Keith's real exam materials: format, scope and marking (read this first)

On October 6 Keith sent three things: the review deck he will use in class (16 slides, with five old-exam questions and no answers), the Fall 2023 midterm with suggested answers, and the Winter 2026 midterm with a model answer key. They are the best evidence there is of what your midterm will look like, so they come first in this guide. Every question in them appears in the three sections after this one, with a model answer built from Keith's own suggested answers. Where an older model answer elsewhere in this guide differs from Keith's, follow Keith's.

The exam details side by side

Item Fall 2026 midterm (Keith's deck) Winter 2026 midterm Fall 2023 midterm
Date and time Saturday October 24, 2026, 5:00 PM, room to be announced ("subject to change") Past exam Past exam
Weight Not stated in the deck; both old midterms were 35% of the final grade, so check your course outline 35% 35%
Length 2 hours (your course materials) 2 hours 2 hours
Aids The deck says to make your own cheat sheet; your course materials say one 8.5 × 11 sheet, both sides Open book Closed book, no aids
Breakdown 7 short answer and 1 multiple choice 7 short answer and 1 multiple choice (Q6) 5 short answer and 2 multiple choice (Q2 and Q3)
Total marks Not stated 53 42
Marks by question Not stated Q1 10, Q2 10, Q3 6, Q4 6, Q5 6, Q6 2, Q7 7, Q8 6 Q1 8, Q2 2, Q3 2, Q4 8, Q5 8, Q6 6, Q7 8
Setting Not stated One long story (the reality show The Traitors) cut into eight mini-problems, Ontario law One long story (Oppenheimer and the Manhattan Project) cut into seven mini-problems, Ontario law
Standing instruction on the paper Expect the same "Discuss all counterarguments, any applicable defences, and the damages/remedy the client can expect" The same sentence

Because the deck's 7 + 1 breakdown matches Winter 2026 exactly, treat Winter 2026 as the closest model of your paper: a 10-mark question is a full multi-issue problem, a 6-mark question is one claim with its defences, and the multiple choice is worth 2 marks. Plan for about two minutes per mark, which means roughly 22 minutes for a 10-mark question, 13 minutes for a 6-mark one and 3 minutes for the multiple choice, leaving a few minutes to read over your answers.

Keith's topic list, and where the old exams tested each item

The deck's three topic-review slides are the official scope list. This table puts every item next to the old questions that tested it, so you can see which parts Keith keeps coming back to. "W26" is Winter 2026, "F23" is Fall 2023 and "Deck" is the review deck.

Topic on Keith's list Items listed Where it has been tested Priority
Defamation and its defences Libel, slander, truth, privilege, responsible communication F23 Q7, W26 Q5, Deck multiple choice 2 Top: on every old midterm
Negligence Duty, standard, causation, damages F23 Q4, W26 Q2, Deck Q3 Top: on every old midterm
Defences to negligence Contributory negligence, voluntary assumption of risk F23 Q4, W26 Q2, Deck Q3 Top
Misrepresentation and damages Innocent, negligent, fraudulent; general, special, punitive damages; rescission W26 Q7, Deck Q1; the three damage types are used in F23 Q4 and Q7 Top
Contract formation Offer, acceptance, certainty of terms, illegality F23 Q1, W26 Q1 (certainty), W26 Q8 (formation half), Deck Q2 Top
Capacity Minors, necessaries F23 Q3, W26 Q1 Top: on every old midterm
Consideration Fresh value, past consideration F23 Q2 High
Professional negligence and product liability Expert standard of care, manufacturer's duty W26 Q2 (safety inspector), F23 Q4 (parachute maker) High
Occupiers' Liability Act Trespassers, traps, invitees F23 Q6, Deck Q3 High
Intentional torts and their defences Battery, assault, intentional infliction of mental distress, consent, self-defence, incapacity F23 Q5 High
Fiduciary duty Three-part test, account of profits W26 Q3 High
Business torts Inducing breach of contract, unlawful interference with economic relations W26 Q4 High
Vicarious liability Employer for employee W26 Q4 (Peacock for its executive), Deck Q1 and Q3 High
Intention to create legal relations Social versus commercial, favours Deck multiple choice 1 (the favour for Mike) Medium
Strict liability torts Public nuisance, private nuisance Not yet tested Medium: on the list, so learn it
Other intentional torts Trespass, false imprisonment, malicious prosecution, necessity, involuntariness Not yet tested (a trespasser appears in F23 Q6) Medium
Other concepts Burden of proof, circumstantial evidence Not yet tested as a question, but every rule statement needs the standard of proof Medium

The pattern: every old midterm has had a defamation problem, a negligence problem with contributory negligence, a capacity question and a contract-formation problem. If you can write those four perfectly under time, you have most of the paper.

What is not on this midterm

Keith's note says the midterm stops before impeachment of a contract, and warns that the old midterms include one or two questions on that material. He did not say which, so this is my reading, to be confirmed at the review class. Winter 2026 Q6 (the two cloaks, a mistake problem) is impeachment. Winter 2026 Q8 (a phone agreement to rent a castle) turns on the Statute of Frauds and part performance, which are the requirement of writing and come after impeachment. The arbitration-clause half of Winter 2026 Q1 (duress, unconscionability, notice of an exclusion clause) belongs to impeachment and terms. The second half of review deck Q2 (what if Bang Up had taken possession in February) is part performance again. In the sections below each of these is tagged "Final exam only", and the parts of the same questions that are in scope (the minor, certainty of terms, the collateral promise, contract formation) are marked so you can practise them. Fall 2023 is entirely in scope.

How Keith marks, from his deck and his answer keys

The deck's four-step method is the one this whole guide uses. Issue: a single sentence stating the question, which your conclusion then answers. Rule: a concise statement of the law and of the defences that apply, with no application to the facts. Application: a step-by-step analysis that applies the rule and then the defences to the facts. Conclusion: a concise statement of the likely outcome. Keith's slide on how to get a high grade lists five things: identify the right legal issue, explain the rule properly, apply it to the facts while exploring every counter-argument and defence so you can assess the legal risk, make the conclusion follow logically from your analysis, and do not raise irrelevant issues. He says he does not care which outcome you side with (just say what you think is likely), how long your answer is, or whether your wording is exact. On layout he suggests outlining first, using headings for Issue, Rule, Application and Conclusion, writing in paragraphs, and using lists only for things that need listing.

The answer keys add four marking rules that matter. First, marks follow the quality of the issue-spotting and analysis, not the final answer: the Fall 2023 key says that a student may find there was a contract, or no negligence, or no assault, and still earn full marks. Second, a reasonable alternative claim earns credit: the key accepts intentional infliction of mental distress instead of, or as well as, assault. Third, a short mention of a related idea (such as a class action) is accepted as a bonus. Fourth, every long answer deals with remedies: general damages, pecuniary (special) damages, punitive damages where the conduct is flagrant, rescission, or an account of profits, so finish each answer with one sentence on what the client can expect to receive.

How to use the real questions

Keith's own study advice on the deck is to complete former midterms on your own and critique your answers, to finish the practice exam, and to build your cheat sheet from the review sheet. Do Winter 2026 first because it is the closest model of your paper, then Fall 2023, then the review deck problems. Write each answer by hand against the clock (two minutes per mark), cover the answer, and only then open the answer and mark yourself against Keith's issues. The answers in the next three sections are condensed from Keith's own: the structure and the conclusions are his, and where I add something he did not say, the answer says so.

Past midterm: Winter 2026 with Keith's answer key (the closest model of your paper)

Winter 2026 is the newest old exam and the closest model of your paper: open book, 2 hours, 53 marks, seven short-answer problems and one multiple choice, all set in the reality show The Traitors under Ontario law. The eight questions below keep the real numbering and marks. Q6 and Q8, and the arbitration half of Q1, test material beyond this midterm (see the previous section), so they are tagged "Final exam only" or flagged inside the answer; the rest are squarely in scope. Each answer is condensed from Keith's answer key and uses his wording for the tests. Anything I added that the key does not say is marked as my addition. Keith's answers are what a marker will expect, so learn his tests word for word.

Q1Very likely10 marks

Studio Lambert Productions makes every contestant on its show The Traitors sign a participation agreement. Jake Morrison, 17, a last-minute replacement contestant, arrives at the castle five minutes before filming, is told he must sign to be on the show, and signs without reading it. The agreement sends all disputes to binding arbitration in London, England, waives any right to go to court, and makes Jake pay £15,000 (about CAD $25,000) in arbitration fees upfront whatever the outcome. It also promises a $10,000 base payment, with further payments "to be determined based on how far the contestant advances in the game". The producers also told Jake orally that he would receive "somewhere between $50,000 and $200,000" if he made the finale. Jake reaches the final five of 23 contestants and is offered $15,000 in total. He threatens to sue, and the company says the arbitration clause stops him from going to court. Advise Jake on the strength of his case.

Q2Very likely10 marks

The production company hires Highland Safety Services Ltd to inspect and certify as safe the forest where contestants will be blindfolded and tied to trees overnight. Highland's inspector, Margaret MacLeod, spends 15 minutes on the site although industry standards require a standardized checklist audit of at least two hours, which includes checking at least one tree for rot. She skips the rot check and misses that several trees have rotted roots. The production company's own safety advisor warns, from the weather forecast, that strong winds could throw debris and injure contestants, but because of the tight filming schedule the company goes ahead and tells the crew to "look out for any debris". Strong winds bring down a rotted tree, which hits contestant Eric Nam and causes a severe concussion and broken arm. Eric had chosen a very elaborate shirt that restricted his movement and could not raise his hand in time to protect his face, although he saw the tree falling. A second tree, with no rot, hits camera operator David Chen, who saw it falling but was too "in the moment" to move; he is left partially paralyzed. Eric and David both want to sue. Analyze their claims and identify all the potential defendants.

Q3Very likely6 marks

Before filming, Dorinda Medley, who has little idea how investments work, gave her close friend Lisa Rinna, who has significant investing experience, full discretionary authority over her investment portfolio. Lisa accepted and promised to "look after your money like it was my own". At the castle Lisa learned from another contestant that a small cosmetics company, GlowUp Inc., was about to be acquired by a major conglomerate. Instead of buying GlowUp shares for Dorinda's portfolio, Lisa bought $500,000 of GlowUp stock with her own money and told Dorinda nothing, because she feared it would be hard to hide her status as a Traitor from her. The stock tripled and Lisa made $1,000,000 profit while Dorinda's portfolio stayed flat. Dorinda finds out after filming and wants to sue Lisa. Advise Dorinda on whether she has a valid claim and what remedies she may get.

Q4Very likely6 marks

Natalie Anderson, a Survivor winner, has signed an exclusive contract with Netflix to appear in its show Wilderness Wars, with a clause that she cannot sign with any competing streaming service from the date she signed until one year after the show airs. Sarah Williams, a Peacock executive who knows about the Netflix contract, tells Natalie's agent: "Netflix is going to cancel Wilderness Wars anyway - I have inside information. Tell Natalie to sign with us for a three-season deal worth $2 million." The agent passes it on, and Natalie believes it and signs with Peacock. She had already been thinking about leaving Netflix because she enjoyed working with Peacock, but the news about the cancellation "ultimately convinced her". A week later Netflix announces that the show is going ahead, and it sues Natalie for breach of contract. Advise Netflix on any claims against Sarah Williams and Peacock and their chance of success.

Q5Very likely6 marks

At a Round Table in the game, contestant Michael Rapaport stands up and says loudly: "Ron is definitely a Traitor! I saw him sneaking around last night. He's a liar and a cheat, and frankly, his comedy career is built on stealing other people's jokes. Everyone in Hollywood knows he's a fraud!" Ron Funches, a comedian, was a Faithful, so the Traitor claim was untrue, and Michael made up the joke-stealing claim on the spot to turn people against Ron. The scene was filmed and later broadcast to millions of viewers on Peacock. Ron lost a major comedy tour sponsorship and received thousands of hateful messages. Advise Ron on his claim against Michael and his chance of success.

Q6Final exam only2 marks

Johnny Weir agrees to buy a tartan cloak from Mark Ballas for $5,000, they shake hands and Johnny pays in full. Johnny believes he is buying the cloak Mark wore in the famous Episode 7 "murder in plain sight" challenge, worth about $15,000 to collectors. Mark believes he is selling a cloak from an earlier, forgettable challenge, which is worth about $1,500, and that is the one he delivers. Mark refuses to refund the money or swap the cloaks. Johnny wants his money back. You advise him: (a) the contract is enforceable because both parties agreed on the essential terms, a cloak for $5,000, and Johnny should have been more specific; (b) the contract is void for mutual mistake about the subject matter, since both parties were mistaken about which cloak was being sold; (c) the contract is voidable at Johnny's election for unilateral mistake, since only Johnny was mistaken; (d) the contract is voidable for innocent misrepresentation, since Mark made a false statement about the cloak; (e) the contract is void for mistake as to the existence of the subject matter, since the cloak Johnny wanted was never offered.

Q7Very likely7 marks

Stephen Colletti wants to invest in a restaurant. Kristen Kish says she is selling her 25% stake in a Toronto restaurant, Ember & Oak, because she is "too busy with hosting duties". She tells him: "The restaurant has been profitable every year since it opened. We've averaged about $200,000 in annual profits over the past three years. The books are solid - I wouldn't sell you something that wasn't a good investment." Stephen buys the stake for $1,000,000 with a handshake and transfers the money the next week. He never asked to see the books, although Kristen would likely have shown them. He later finds that the restaurant has lost money for the past two years, with accumulated losses of $150,000, and that the only profitable year was three years ago, when a celebrity chef's guest appearance produced the $200,000. Kristen received monthly statements from the restaurant's manager and admits she "never really looked at them closely" for two years because she trusted the manager, who told her it was profitable. Stephen wants to rescind and recover his $1,000,000. Advise him on his claims and their chance of success.

Q8Final exam only6 marks

The production company agrees by phone with Lord MacTavish, the owner of Ardross Castle, "to rent Ardross Castle exclusively for filming from January 1 to February 15, 2027, for a total fee of £500,000, payable in two installments". Nothing is signed. Lord MacTavish lets the production crew enter the castle two weeks early to set up and make modifications for filming. Around the same time Netflix phones him: it wants to film Wilderness Wars on the grounds and in the castle for the same period and will pay £1,000,000. The paper asks you to advise the production company on whether the new agreement can be signed and on the risks of signing it; Keith's key treats it as whether Lord MacTavish can sign with Netflix and what follows.

Past midterm: Fall 2023 with Keith's suggested answers

Fall 2023 was a closed-book, 2-hour paper marked out of 42: five short-answer problems and two multiple choice questions, built around Oppenheimer and the Manhattan Project (Ontario law applied to events in the United States). Every question is inside your midterm scope. Q2 and Q3 are the multiple choice questions; the correct options are marked in Keith's answer paper and are given below with the reason for each. The long answers are condensed from his suggested answers. Where I add something he did not say, it is marked as my addition.

Q1Very likely8 marks

Henry Stimson, the U.S. Secretary of War, meets a local contractor, Builder X Inc., about building a housing village at Los Alamos for the Manhattan Project. They shake hands. In New Mexico a handshake usually signals that a deal is made, but that is not the practice anywhere else in the United States, including Stimson's base in Washington. Builder X goes back to its office, drafts a "Building Agreement", signs it and mails it to the government. It says Builder X will build the project to specifications to be provided and agreed by December 1, 1942; that the government will pay "a minimum of $10 million USD, with the actual amount to be determined by mutual agreement between the parties when the specifications are finalized"; and that "due to the urgency of this project" Builder X "will not comply with the Building Code as required by New Mexico state law". Stimson never signs. The next week Builder X arrives on site and starts building while Stimson is away negotiating a better deal with another company. When Stimson returns he sees the work and finds the letter in his mail. He wants to get out of the contract, if there is one. Advise him of his best options.

Q2Very likely2 marks

After the builder dispute is settled, a contract is formed and the project moves ahead. The written agreement says nothing about the wood to be used. Stimson, worried about New Mexico's dry climate, asks the builder: "Are you going to use kiln dried wood? It is very important in this climate to use this wood!" The builder replies that, although it is more expensive, they will use kiln dried wood. At the end Stimson finds that kiln dried wood was not used and sues for breach of contract. You advise him: (a) he will likely succeed because the written contract provided for kiln dried wood; (b) he is unlikely to succeed because there was never an offer to use kiln dried wood; (c) he is unlikely to succeed because there was never acceptance of the offer to use kiln dried wood; (d) he is unlikely to succeed because there was no consideration for the promise to use kiln dried wood; (e) he will likely succeed because there was offer, acceptance and consideration for the promise.

Q3Very likely2 marks

Theodore Hall is a physicist who is only 15. He signs an employment agreement, a lease for his house and an agreement for custom furniture to be shipped to his house. He is having second thoughts about all three contracts. You advise him: (a) he is bound by all of them and would breach every one if he backed out; (b) since he is a minor all the contracts are voidable at his election; (c) only the contract for the house would be voidable; (d) only the contract for the furniture would be voidable; (e) none of the contracts is voidable at his election.

Q4Very likely8 marks

The Manhattan Project team builds its first atom bomb prototype and holsters it on top of a large structure to simulate a test drop. The night before, the physicist Richard Feynman, as a prank, forms pillows into the shape of a person, puts a radio inside the pillow figure, climbs the structure and leaves the figure next to the bomb. The next morning, at the countdown, the lights reveal the silhouette of the bomb with the silhouette of a person next to it, and the radio blares "Help me I'm still up here". The two physicists responsible for the drop have already pressed the launch button, but when they see the silhouette and hear the call they immediately press the "abort mission" button, which releases a parachute meant to land the bomb safely without exploding. The parachute maker used the wrong material and sizing, so the parachute cannot hold the bomb, and strong wind carries it to land hard not far from the Los Alamos village, where it explodes and injures many people. Nobody dies, but Feynman himself loses a leg. The injured, including Feynman, want to bring claims. Advise them, discussing all potential claims, counterarguments and defences.

Q5Very likely8 marks

After the blast the physicist Niels Bohr has a severe concussion and has been more aggressive than usual and not thinking clearly. At dinner Feynman tries to defend himself by saying "it was just a joke". This sets Bohr off so badly that he blacks out. When he wakes he is standing over Feynman, who is on the ground covered in blood, and Bohr has a knife in the side of his own chest. It turns out that Bohr had jumped over the table to attack Feynman in a fit of rage, and Feynman pulled a pocketknife and stabbed him. Both are severely injured. Afterwards Bohr is said to have yelled "I am going to kill everyone in this room". Three other physicists in the room were so scared that they ran out, and it was at that point that Bohr "woke up" from his rage. Discuss the claims that might be brought, the defences that may apply, and the likely outcome.

Q6Very likely6 marks

Feynman, a known prankster whose stunts include breaking into people's safes that hold confidential U.S. documents and leaving notes, quietly breaks into Stimson's home late at night. He finds a safe containing confidential U.S. Defence documents, breaks into it and leaves Stimson a note. As he leaves, his one remaining foot falls through the floor and his leg breaks. It turns out that Stimson had deliberately set up an area of his floor to catch and hurt intruders. Feynman wants to sue Stimson. Advise him on how to proceed and his likelihood of success.

Q7Very likely8 marks

The Manhattan Project has finished, but resentment toward Oppenheimer has grown in the U.S. government because he is taking the glory. The Atomic Energy Commission opens proceedings to revoke his security clearance, at the height of McCarthyism, an era of political persecution of left-wing people accused of sympathizing with communism. At the hearing, the witness Lewis Strauss testifies: "Mr. Oppenheimer is a communist. He sympathizes with the communist movement and was involved in and continues to be involved in the communist party. He should not be trusted!" Oppenheimer had been involved in some socialist political movements, mainly campaigning for more labour unions and worker protections, but it was patently false that he had any affiliation with communist parties. He wants to bring a claim against the witness for the statements. Advise him.

Keith's review deck questions (the ones he will take up in class), with my answers

These are the five questions on the last slides of Keith's deck, which he says come from old examinations. He will give his answers at the first class after reading week, so the answers below are mine, built the way his answer keys are built; compare them with his in class and correct anything that differs. All five are set at Bang Up Car Repair Inc., a closely held corporation. Howard owns 70% of the shares, and Penny, Leonard and Sheldon own 10% each. Howard, Penny and Will (a local accountant) are the directors. Leonard and Penny run the business: Leonard manages the shop and the repair work, and Penny oversees the whole business. The deck's instruction for the three problems is: identify the area of law or legal principles that are relevant to each situation, define the applicable law, apply it to Bang Up's circumstances, and include remedies and defences.

Q1Very likely

Leonard tells Penny that Bang Up needs a new hoist, because the current one cannot support the new larger SUVs and trucks. They go to Machine Art Inc., a commercial supplier of large equipment to repair shops. A man wearing a name tag reading "Stewart, Art Specialist" approaches. Leonard describes what the hoist must do. Stewart recommends the "Hoist-a-Matic" and says: "In my opinion, the Hoist-a-Matic is by far the best in the industry." Penny is worried about the price, but Stewart assures her it is worth it. Penny writes a cheque and signs a purchase order. The hoist is installed. Within a week Leonard realizes that the hoist works well but is not strong enough to lift the bigger vehicles (the deck's text reads "still strong enough", which is a typo for "not strong enough"). What are the rights and obligations of the parties?

Q2Likely

Howard proposes to the board opening a second repair shop across town. The board agrees that a place Penny knows through her brother is the right location and, if Penny can secure a good price, approves her leasing the premises. Penny meets Wyatt, the owner, who tours her around, and at a coffee shop, after hours of negotiating, they agree a price per month for a 5-year renewable term, with Bang Up to take over at the beginning of April. They shake hands, and Penny gives Wyatt a cheque for $3,500 as the first month's rent. On March 1 Wyatt calls Penny, says he has changed his mind and is renting the property to Cal Tires Repair Shop. What are the parties' rights and obligations about the contract and the $3,500 deposit? Explain your reasons. Would your answer change if Bang Up had taken possession in February to start renovations?

Q3Very likely

Bernadette brings her car to Bang Up for regular maintenance, with a morning appointment. She arrives very early and finds the big garage door closed. As the sign says, she honks her horn. Denise, the only mechanic who has arrived, is not sure how to operate the big door but presses the button, and the door opens only halfway. Bernadette is not sure whether to drive in because she cannot see well, but Denise waves her in. Bernadette inches in with her eyes fixed on the partly open door, hoping the car will clear it. Halfway through she hears what she thinks is a scrape, but it is only Barry, another mechanic, coming in from the front office. He startles her so much that she panics and steps on the gas instead of the brake and runs over Denise, who is still in front of the car guiding her in. Denise has a major concussion, a broken leg, multiple broken ribs and a punctured lung. What are the rights and obligations of the parties?

Q4Likely

Denise is in the hospital, and Leonard tells Penny they are short staffed in the shop. Penny sends her friends to work for Leonard. Mike dropped out of high school, and Penny arranged the job as a favour to her friend. Leonard does not think it is a good idea because Mike has no experience. Mike comes to work every day for a week but does not really do anything, and he causes a lot of problems. In the middle of the second week, after Mike breaks the hoist while "horsing around", Leonard tells him he can collect his cash from Penny and go home. Mike can: (a) sue for breach of the employment contract; (b) not sue, because no contract was ever formed; (c) sue Leonard for professional liability; (d) not sue, because of equitable estoppel; (e) sue for undue influence.

Q5Likely

Mike is angry about being let go. He writes on his social media accounts that Leonard "is a liar and a cheat and is notorious for over-charging his customers". Leonard finds out when a customer asks him about it. Leonard can sue Mike for: (a) product defamation; (b) slander; (c) libel; (d) the tort of deceit; (e) fraudulent misrepresentation.

Torts I: intentional torts and their defences

Intentional torts are tested two ways: short questions asking for the elements, and fact patterns where several torts overlap (for example, a bouncer who grabs, holds and accuses a patron). In every intentional tort the defendant must intend the act, the plaintiff carries the burden of proving every element, and once the elements are shown the burden shifts to the defendant to prove a defence.

Q1Very likely

What is a tort, what is its purpose, and how does it differ from a crime and from negligence?

Q2Very likely

State the elements of assault and of battery, and explain how they differ.

Q3Very likely

At a bar, Dana shouts "I'll smash your face!" and swings a bottle at Eli but misses. Eli shoves Dana to the ground and she breaks her wrist. Advise each party on potential tort liability.

Q4Likely

State the elements of trespass to land and give a business example.

Q5Likely

A supervisor, to punish a worker, falsely tells him his daughter has been killed in a car accident. The worker is later diagnosed by his doctor with a serious anxiety disorder. Can he sue for intentional infliction of mental suffering?

Q6Very likely

A store security guard suspects a customer of shoplifting and keeps her locked in a back room for 40 minutes until the police arrive. No stolen goods are found. Advise the customer.

Q7Likely

State the four elements of malicious prosecution and apply them: a competitor tells police that a rival stole equipment, knowing the claim is false. The police lay charges, which are later withdrawn.

Q8Very likely

A company emails all 50 staff saying that a former employee, Sam, "stole from the till". The statement is false. Can Sam sue, and what defences might the company raise?

Q9Very likely

List the defences available to intentional torts and explain each in one or two sentences.

Q10Likely

A bar's bouncer, while working, punches a patron who is arguing. Is the bar liable, and on what basis?

Torts II: negligence and the defences to negligence

Negligence is the single most likely tort topic on the midterm. Keith's assigned practice problem (Chapter 4 Case Problem 2) is a negligence problem, the negligence slides spend the most time on the test, and almost every injury hypothetical uses it. Always present the four elements in order, and always finish with defences and vicarious liability.

Q1Very likely

Define negligence and state the test a court applies, including the standard of proof.

Q2Very likely

Explain how a court decides whether a duty of care exists, naming the leading cases.

Q3Very likely

What standard of care applies to an ordinary adult, a child, a professional and a specialist?

Q4Very likely

Explain factual causation and remoteness, and say how each is tested.

Q5Likely

What are the three types of damages in tort, and when is each awarded?

Q6Very likely

A bar ejected four men who had been fighting. A short time later it ejected another customer, who had not been involved. Outside, he was attacked and seriously injured. Is the bar liable in negligence? (This is Keith's assigned Chapter 4 Case Problem 2, based on Murphy v Little Memphis Cabaret.)

Q7Very likely

A shopper slips on a spill that the store had not cleaned for an hour. She was texting and wearing slippery shoes. What effect does her own conduct have on her claim?

Q8Very likely

A trampoline park customer signed a waiver and was injured doing a backflip when a trampoline's frame was faulty. Can the park rely on voluntary assumption of risk?

Q9Likely

What is ex turpi causa and how likely is it to succeed?

Q10Very likely

A delivery driver, texting while driving a company van, hits a cyclist who was not wearing a helmet and suffers a head injury. Advise the cyclist about who is liable and what defences exist.

Q11Likely

What do the rules on burden of proof and circumstantial evidence say about how a plaintiff proves negligence?

Torts III: occupiers' liability, product liability, professional liability and business torts

These are applications of negligence to common business settings, so examiners like to hide them in a single hypothetical. When you see an injury on a business's premises, a defective product, or a professional's mistake, first name the specific branch, then run the negligence elements through it.

Q1Very likely

Define an occupier and state the duties an occupier owes to (a) people invited onto the premises, (b) trespassers, and (c) people who willingly assume a risk.

Q2Very likely

On a rainy day a customer slips on the wet tile at the entrance of a store. There was no mat and no warning sign, and she was looking at her phone. The store is rented by a corporation. Advise the customer.

Q3Likely

A conservation area runs a rope swing over a lake with a sign saying "Use at your own risk". A visitor swings, falls and fractures his spine because the rope was frayed. Can the occupier rely on the risk being willingly assumed?

Q4Likely

A teenager climbs a fence at night into a closed construction site and falls into an unmarked, uncovered pit. Advise the site owner.

Q5Very likely

Explain product liability: what type of claim it is, the three basic types of defect, and the ongoing duty a manufacturer has.

Q6Very likely

A mother buys a donut for her daughter at a bakery. The daughter bites into a small piece of metal and chips a tooth. The metal came from a worn blade in the bakery's mixing equipment. Advise the daughter.

Q7Likely

A pharmaceutical company learns after sale that its sleeping pill can cause dangerous sleepwalking but does not update the label. A patient is injured. Is the company liable?

Q8Likely

A family doctor with no heart-surgery training agrees to perform heart surgery and makes a mistake. What standard of care applies, and why does it matter?

Q9Likely

A competitor persuades a supplier to break its exclusive supply contract with your client by offering it a higher price. Advise your client.

Q10Likely

A rival spreads false rumours and sends threatening letters to your client's customers so they stop buying, and your client loses business. Which tort fits?

Q11Possible

A new coffee shop uses a name and logo almost identical to a well-known local café so customers think it is the same business. What claim does the established café have?

Torts IV: misrepresentation, remedies, strict liability, fiduciary duty and ethics

This section finishes the torts topic. Misrepresentation and fiduciary duty are the most likely members of this group, because both have assigned practice problems in the answer key (Chapter 9 Case Problem 5, Chapter 26 Cases 1 and 3), and the ethics videos are required viewing and part of the assignment.

Q1Very likely

Compare innocent, negligent and fraudulent misrepresentation in terms of state of mind, whether a duty of care is needed, and remedy.

Q2Very likely

An accounting firm carelessly prepares financial statements for a client and knows they will be given to a specific bank to support a loan. The bank lends $500,000, relying on the statements, and loses money. Can the bank sue the firm?

Q3Likely

State the elements of fraudulent misrepresentation and the extra remedies it brings.

Q4Likely

A seller honestly but wrongly tells a buyer that a used boat has a new motor, and the buyer relies on this to buy the boat. The seller did not check the facts carelessly; he was told so by the previous owner. What is the buyer's remedy?

Q5Likely

What are the three types of tort damages, what is the purpose of damages in tort, and what is an "actionable per se" tort?

Q6Likely

A delivery person visiting a house is bitten by the occupant's dog after teasing it. The owner had never known the dog to bite. Is the owner liable?

Q7Very likely

Define a fiduciary, state what a fiduciary owes, and explain the two ways a fiduciary duty arises, including the ad hoc test.

Q8Very likely

Kristen is a director of a corporation. She recommends that the corporation lease space in a building she owns, without disclosing her interest or getting permission. The other two directors, Jim and Ashley, learn of this later. Advise the corporation. (This is Chapter 26 Case 1 in Keith's answer key.)

Q9Very likely

Slater, a director of Lockley Quarries Ltd., hears from an old friend (not in his capacity as a director) about a gravel pit for sale, the kind of property Lockley is seeking. He says nothing and buys half of it for himself. Advise a minority shareholder. (This is Chapter 26 Case 3 in Keith's answer key.)

Q10Very likely

Define incrementalism and overconfidence bias and apply them: an office manager first rounds expense claims up, later approves her own claims, and finally files a false claim. She says she is sure she will never get caught.

Contract formation I: offer, invitation to treat and acceptance

Any contract fact pattern starts with the question "was a contract formed?", so you answer these formation questions before anything else. Keith's assigned practice problem for this part (Chapter 6 Case Problem 3, the Aristo Condos problem) is in this section.

Q1Very likely

What is a contract, and what are the elements needed to form one?

Q2Very likely

Distinguish an offer from an invitation to treat, give examples of each, and say why it matters.

Q3Very likely

A store shelf shows a camera at $104 when the regular price is $1,040. A customer takes it to the cash and demands to buy it at $104. The cashier refuses. Is the store bound to sell?

Q4Very likely

A seller offers a used car for $10,000. The buyer replies "I will give you $9,000." The seller says no. The buyer then says "Fine, I accept your $10,000 offer." Is there a contract?

Q5Very likely

A farmer texts a buyer "I'll sell you 50 tonnes of wheat at $300 a tonne." The buyer replies with a thumbs-up emoji. The farmer later says no contract was made. Who is right?

Q6Very likely

On Monday Ana offers to sell her boat to Raj and says the offer is open until Friday at 5 pm. On Wednesday Ana sells the boat to Sam, and on Thursday at 9 am she emails Raj to say the offer is withdrawn. Raj reads the email at 10 am and replies at 8 pm that evening: "I accept." What is the legal position?

Q7Very likely

Ben mails an offer to Cleo, and Cleo posts a letter of acceptance on Monday. The letter is lost. On Tuesday Ben, hearing nothing, sells to someone else. Is there a contract? What if Cleo had accepted by email?

Q8Very likely

Aristo Condos Inc.'s representative offered a buyer any one of four units for $275,000 and said the details would follow by courier. The courier package contained the formal offers with all the terms, including the required down payment and acceptable mortgage financing. Before the courier arrived, Heilman replied "I accept your offer with respect to unit 307." Was a contract formed? (This is Keith's Chapter 6 Case Problem 3.)

Q9Likely

A customer signs a car-rental form without reading it. A clause in small print makes him liable for all damage even if the company's own fault caused it. The car is damaged by a defective brake. Can the company rely on the clause?

Q10Likely

A restaurant posts "$200 reward for return of lost dog". A neighbour finds and returns the dog without having seen the notice beforehand. What kind of contract is this and when is it accepted?

Q11Possible

A consumer in Ontario signs an online contract with a company based elsewhere that says all disputes must be heard in that other jurisdiction. Where is the contract formed, and can the clause stop her from suing in Ontario?

Final exam only: setting aside a contract: mistake, misrepresentation, undue influence, unconscionability and duress

Not on the October 24 midterm. Keith's note says the midterm stops before impeachment of a contract, so everything in this section (mistake, undue influence, unconscionability, duress, and rescission as a way of setting a contract aside) belongs to the final exam. The exception is misrepresentation as a tort, which is on the midterm: study it in the torts sections and in the real questions earlier in this guide (Winter 2026 Q7 and review deck Q1). Every question in this section is tagged "Final exam only", so leave it until the midterm is over.

This topic is a favourite for hypotheticals because many facts can raise several grounds at once (a lie, a mistaken belief and some pressure). The answer always has the same shape: name the ground, state its test, apply it, then say whether the result is void, voidable, rescission, rectification or damages. Keith's assigned practice problem for this topic (Chapter 9 Case Problem 5, on misrepresentation) is in Q2.

Q1Final exam only

Define rescission, repudiation and rectification, and list the four main grounds for setting aside a contract.

Q2Final exam only

A football player signs a contract with an eastern-conference team believing a certain number of games will be played in a season (16 is standard in the western conference). The contract does not state the number of games and allows him to be traded to a western team. He asks the court to rescind for misrepresentation or non-disclosure. (This is Keith's Chapter 9 Case Problem 5, based on Re Gabriel and Hamilton Tiger Cats.)

Q3Final exam only

A used-car dealer tells a buyer, "This car has had one owner and has never been in an accident." The buyer relies on this and buys. The dealer had not checked; the car had been in a serious accident. What can the buyer do?

Q4Final exam only

Classify each mistake and state the effect: (a) both parties believe a painting for sale exists, but it burned in a fire the day before; (b) a buyer thinks he is buying a ship called Peerless sailing in October, the seller means a different ship called Peerless sailing in December; (c) the buyer knows the seller has mispriced an item and says nothing; (d) the written contract says "30 units" but both parties had orally agreed on three.

Q5Final exam only

An online retailer lists a $1,200 laptop at $12 by mistake. A customer orders it and receives an automated confirmation. The retailer cancels the order. Can the customer enforce the contract?

Q6Final exam only

Explain mistake about the subject matter, distinguishing mistakes about existence from mistakes about value, and say what Hyrsky v Smith decided.

Q7Final exam only

A landowner and a developer orally agree that the landowner will sell three condominium units for $500,000 each. The typed contract says $50,000 each, and both sign without noticing. Can the court fix the contract?

Q8Final exam only

A fraudster poses as the manager of a real, well-known company and buys goods on credit, then sells them to an innocent purchaser. In a second case a fraudster uses a company name that does not exist and does the same. Who keeps the goods in each case?

Q9Final exam only

A bank manager asks an elderly client to sign a document, telling her it is a routine receipt. In fact it is a guarantee of the manager's brother's loan. She signs without reading because she trusted him. Can she avoid it?

Q10Final exam only

An elderly father in poor health signs over his house to a child who is his caregiver for much less than it is worth. The father had no independent legal advice. Can the transfer be set aside?

Q11Final exam only

What is unconscionability as an independent doctrine, and what did Uber v Heller decide?

Q12Final exam only

A contractor threatens to burn a client's warehouse unless the client signs a new price. The client signs. Can the client avoid the contract?

Q13Final exam only

What are the remedies for each ground, and how does the remedy depend on whether the contract is void or voidable?

Final exam only: contracts in writing and contract interpretation

Not on the October 24 midterm. The requirement of writing (the Statute of Frauds and part performance), contract interpretation, good faith and the sale-of-goods and consumer topics come after impeachment, so they belong to the final exam. Winter 2026 Q8 and the second half of review deck Q2 show how Keith tests part performance, so skim those if you have spare time, but put your midterm study into torts and the seven elements of a contract. Every question in this section is tagged "Final exam only".

The Statute of Frauds is the last formal topic before the midterm, and Keith's notes flag four categories as KEY (guarantees, marriage, agreements not to be performed within one year, and land). Interpretation (Sattva), the duty of good faith (Bhasin) and implied terms under the Sale of Goods Act round out the scope. Expect at least one short question and one fact pattern here.

Q1Final exam only

List the types of contract that the Statute of Frauds requires to be in writing, and say what happens if there is no writing.

Q2Final exam only

Maya orally tells a bank, "If my brother doesn't repay his $20,000 loan, I'll pay it." He defaults. Separately, Maya orally tells a supplier, "Deliver the goods to my brother, I'll pay for them as long as you deliver." Which promises must be in writing?

Q3Final exam only

Dan orally agrees to buy Ella's farmland. He pays a deposit, moves equipment onto the land and builds a fence with Ella's knowledge. Ella then sells the land to another buyer, relying on the lack of writing. Can Dan enforce the oral agreement?

Q4Final exam only

A consultant orally agrees to work for a company for 18 months. After 5 months the company ends the arrangement, and the consultant sues. Does the Statute of Frauds apply? What exceptions exist?

Q5Final exam only

What does "in writing" require? Is an exchange of emails or a typed name enough?

Q6Final exam only

A buyer pays a $20,000 deposit on an oral agreement to buy land. The seller refuses to proceed and keeps the deposit. What are the consequences of there being no writing?

Q7Final exam only

A buyer orally orders $5,000 of equipment by phone, and later the seller refuses to deliver, saying the deal was not in writing. The buyer made no payment and has not received any of the goods. Does the Sale of Goods Act help the seller?

Q8Final exam only

A door-to-door salesperson sells a consumer a $900 water filter and gives her no paperwork. What does the Consumer Protection Act require?

Q9Final exam only

A written supply contract says the supplier will deliver goods "as soon as reasonably possible". The buyer says that means within two weeks, the supplier says two months. How will a court decide what the clause means?

Q10Final exam only

A supplier tells a distributor it will renew their agreement while secretly arranging to replace the distributor. When the term ends it does not renew. Can the distributor sue?

Q11Final exam only

A buyer tells a hardware dealer, "I need a ladder strong enough to paint a two-storey house," and the dealer sells her one. It collapses under her weight during normal use. There is no written warranty. What are her rights?

Q12Final exam only

What is an implied term, and how does it relate to the duty of good faith?

Full problem questions with complete model IRAC answers

Which of these are in scope: Q4 (the Statute of Frauds and part performance) and Q5 (mistake) are tagged "Final exam only" because they test material that comes after impeachment, so skip them until the midterm is over. Q1 (occupiers' liability and negligence), Q2 (offer and acceptance), Q3 (misrepresentation) and Q6 (fiduciary duty and negligent misrepresentation) are all inside the midterm scope, and they sit close to what Keith's old exams ask.

The exam will almost certainly give you one or more fact-pattern problems (Keith's assignment rubric and his case-problem answer key both show the style: several issues buried in one story, apply the tests, reach a conclusion). The six problems below use invented facts, set in Ontario, and each one blends two to four topics the way a real hypothetical does. Read the question, cover the answer, write your own IRAC by hand against a clock (20 to 25 minutes each), then compare. The model answers are longer than you could handwrite in that time, so each one ends with a "Short on time" line telling you the minimum to get on the page.

Format to copy: Issue (one sentence per question the facts raise), Rule (the test, with the case or statute name), Application (go element by element, use the facts, give the other side's best argument), Conclusion (a clear answer, with a hedge that matches how strong the facts are).

Q1Very likely

Green Thumb Ltd runs a garden centre in Ontario. On a busy Saturday morning, Jordan, a part-time cashier, drops a 4-litre jug of clear liquid fertilizer in the main aisle near the entrance. Jordan tells no one and leaves to find paper towels. The yellow "Wet Floor" sign is in the storeroom. Six months earlier the manager, Ms. Rao, told staff to use signs for spills, but she never checks and says, "Nothing has ever happened here." Three minutes after the spill Priya, a customer wearing flip-flops and looking at her phone, slips, falls and breaks her wrist. She is a freelance photographer and cannot work for six weeks. Advise Priya on a claim against Green Thumb Ltd. Discuss any ethical issues.

Q2Very likely

On Monday at 9 AM Dana emails Marcus: "I will sell you my used commercial espresso machine for $4,000. This offer stays open until Friday at 5 PM." On Tuesday Marcus emails back: "Would you consider $3,500?" Dana replies the same afternoon: "No. $4,000 is my price." On Wednesday at 9 AM Marcus mails a signed letter saying "I accept your offer at $4,000." On Wednesday at 4 PM Dana, who has found a better buyer, emails Marcus: "I am withdrawing my offer. The machine is sold." Marcus reads that email on Thursday morning. His letter reaches Dana on Friday morning. Is there a contract?

Q3Very likely

Karen sells her yoga studio to Luis for $180,000. During negotiations Karen says (a) "We have about 300 active members and bring in $15,000 a month"; the studio really has 180 members and $9,000 a month, and Karen knows it. She also says (b) "The landlord is great, I'm sure he will renew the lease," and says nothing about a letter she received last month saying the building will be demolished in 18 months. Luis was offered the books, but "did not have time" to review them and relied on Karen's numbers. The contract includes a clause: "The buyer acknowledges that no representations were made other than those in this agreement." Six weeks after closing, Luis finds out everything. He wants his money back. Advise Luis.

Q4Final exam only

On May 1 Nadia orally agrees to sell a vacant lot in Muskoka to Tom for $200,000, with closing on June 30. They shake hands and nothing is signed. Tom e-transfers $20,000 with the memo "deposit," which Nadia keeps. With Nadia's knowledge and approval, Tom then hires a contractor to clear the lot and build a gravel driveway, costing $15,000. On June 1 Nadia receives a $320,000 offer from another buyer and tells Tom the deal is off because nothing is in writing. Separately, to get the contractor to start work, Tom's brother-in-law Omar orally told the contractor, "If Tom doesn't pay you, I will." Tom does not pay and the contractor sues Omar. Advise Tom and Omar.

Q5Final exam only

Greg sells vintage guitars and has three transactions to untangle. (a) Greg emails Fatima: "I will sell you my Fender for $6,000." Greg owns two Fenders, a 1962 Stratocaster and a 1978 Telecaster. Fatima pictured the 1962 Stratocaster she saw in his shop; Greg meant the 1978 Telecaster, which is the only one he wanted to sell. Neither knew what the other meant, and Fatima accepted. (b) Greg agrees by phone to sell Fatima a 1959 Gibson for $12,000, but his assistant types $1,200 on the written contract, which Greg signs without reading it carefully. Fatima, who knows the guitar is worth $12,000 or more, signs it and sends a deposit. (c) Greg sends another guitar to "Patel Music Ltd," a well-known real shop in a nearby town that he has dealt with, after emails that came from a look-alike address. The sender was a fraudster who paid with a cheque that bounced, then sold the guitar to Hannah, who bought it in good faith for $3,000. Advise Greg on each.

Q6Likely

Beatrice, 82 and recently widowed, has relied for twelve years on Colin, her investment adviser at Lakeshore Wealth Ltd, who manages her $400,000 account with full discretion to buy and sell without asking her. Over two years Colin moves money into Sunrise Solar Inc., a private company owned by his brother-in-law, starting with 5 percent of her account and rising to 40 percent. He tells her the investment is "guaranteed and safer than your bonds." He does not tell her that Sunrise paid him a $20,000 referral fee. Sunrise goes bankrupt and Beatrice loses $160,000. Colin says, "I was sure it was a winner." Advise Beatrice, and discuss any ethical issues.

Timed 2-hour mock exam in Keith's format (53 marks)

This mock copies the shape of the real paper described in Keith's deck and shown by the Winter 2026 midterm: seven short-answer questions and one multiple choice question, 53 marks, 2 hours, one story cut into eight mini-problems, Ontario law. The paper is mine, not Keith's. It deliberately tests items from Keith's topic list that the old exams have not used yet (nuisance, false imprisonment and malicious prosecution, product liability and occupiers' liability, necessity, a director's corporate opportunity) together with the topics that every old exam has tested (negligence, defamation, contract formation, capacity). Everything on it is inside your midterm scope.

How to use it: write it by hand, with the cheat sheet you plan to bring if aids are allowed (and, if you can, write a second paper with no sheet at all, since Fall 2023 was closed book), set a 120-minute timer, and do not open the marking guide until the timer ends. Plan about two minutes per mark: roughly 22 minutes each for Q1 and Q2, 13 minutes each for Q3, Q4, Q5 and Q8, 15 minutes for Q7, 3 minutes for Q6, and a few minutes to reread. Then mark yourself against the guide and note which topics cost you marks.

The paper

This exam is marked out of 53 marks and is 2 hours long. For each question, and where appropriate, discuss all counterarguments, any applicable defences, and the damages or remedy the client can expect to receive. For the multiple choice question, circle the correct answer. Apply Ontario law.

Aurora Live Inc. is a closely held Ontario corporation that runs the Maple Ridge Music Festival on rented farmland outside Guelph. Its directors are Priya, who runs operations, Marcus, and Helen, an outside accountant.

Q1 (10 marks). On March 1, Sofia, Aurora's booking manager, emails Jax Mercer, the manager of the band Static Orchard: "We would like Static Orchard to headline on Saturday, July 18 for a fee of $40,000. This offer is open until March 8." On March 4 Jax replies: "Happy to do it at $40,000 as long as Aurora also covers a hospitality and hotel rider, details to follow next week." Sofia does not answer. On March 7 at 9:00 AM, after booking another headliner, Sofia emails Jax: "Our offer is withdrawn." Jax reads it that afternoon and replies at 4:00 PM: "Forget the rider. We accept your offer at $40,000." Static Orchard now threatens to sue if Aurora does not let it play. Separately, Aurora signed a solo opening act, Noor, who is 17. Noor signed an agreement to perform for $8,000 "plus a fair share of merchandise profits, to be agreed after the festival". Noor has had a better offer from another festival and wants out. Advise Aurora on whether it is bound to Static Orchard and whether it can hold Noor to her agreement.

Q2 (10 marks). Aurora hires Steelline Fencing Ltd to supply and install crowd barriers in front of the main stage. Steelline's installer, Dev, sets the panels using stakes shorter than the manufacturer's instructions require, because the ground is soft and he is behind schedule. The panels were made by Barrier Co., and a later test shows that their welds are weaker than the industry standard. Aurora's own policy is that its safety inspector, Tom, must inspect every structure before the gates open. On opening day Priya tells Tom there is no time and to "just sign it off", and he does. During the headline set a surge in the crowd collapses a barrier. Mateo, a front-row ticket holder, breaks his arm. Lena, who ignored the signs and the announcements telling people not to climb the barrier and was climbing it to reach the stage when it collapsed, breaks her ankle. Both want to sue. Identify all the potential defendants and analyze the claims.

Q3 (6 marks). Gloria runs an organic berry farm and farm stand next to the field Aurora rents for festival parking. For three nights the festival's amplified music plays until 2:00 AM, and dust and diesel fumes from 3,000 cars drift over her berry fields, which cuts her pick-your-own business. On the Saturday, festival traffic also blocks the only public road to her farm stand for twelve hours, so no customers can reach it, and she loses $18,000 in sales. Aurora says it had a municipal permit for the festival. Advise Gloria.

Q4 (6 marks). Omar, a fan, is walking to the exit with a large bag. Dale, a security guard employed by Aurora, thinks it is full of stolen speakers, tells Omar he cannot leave, walks him to a locked staff trailer and keeps him there for 90 minutes while he waits for the police. The bag holds Omar's jacket and a thermos. While Omar waits, Marcus tells the police that Omar "is a known thief who stole from us last year", which is false: Marcus has confused him with someone else. The police charge Omar after speaking to Marcus. The charge is withdrawn at the first court date. Advise Omar.

Q5 (6 marks). After the festival, Rae, the singer of Static Orchard, posts on Instagram: "Aurora Live pays performers late and its director Priya pocketed the festival's insurance money." Aurora did pay one band two weeks late. Priya has never taken any insurance money, and Rae has no evidence that she did. The post is seen by 200,000 people. Two sponsors cancel, costing Aurora $60,000, and Priya loses a consulting contract. Advise Priya and Aurora on a claim against Rae.

Q6 (2 marks). On April 1 Jess, a web developer, rebuilds Aurora's ticket website for free because she wants the exposure. Aurora did not ask her to. On May 1 Aurora's CEO emails her: "Thanks, I'll pay you $5,000 for that work." Aurora never pays and Jess sues. You advise her: (a) she will win because the promise was in writing; (b) she will win because there was an offer, acceptance and consideration; (c) she will probably lose, because the promise was made after the work was finished, so it is past consideration; (d) she will win because the work was valuable to Aurora; (e) she will lose, because a corporation cannot contract with an individual.

Q7 (7 marks). The board has told Marcus to look for more land for the festival's expansion. Through a landowner he met on Aurora's business, Marcus learns that the 200-acre field next to the festival site is about to be sold. He tells neither Priya nor Helen. He buys the field personally, through his own holding company, for $2,000,000, intending to sell it to Aurora for $3,500,000 once Aurora's expansion plans are approved. Priya finds out. Aurora is short of cash and says it could not have bought the field itself. Advise Aurora.

Q8 (6 marks). On a 35°C afternoon Sam sees a dog panting heavily in a locked car in the festival parking field. He asks two security guards for help, and they say they will "get to it later". Ten minutes later the dog is lying down and barely moving. Sam smashes the car's rear window with a rock, lifts the dog out and gives it water. The owner, Pat, sues Sam for the window and for frightening the dog. Advise Sam.

Stop here: write the paper before you read further

Marking guide and model answers Open it only after you have written the paper

Marks in brackets show where the points are earned. Give yourself the mark if you made the point in your own words, even if your wording was shorter. Keith's rule applies: marks go to the issue-spotting and the analysis, not to whether you land on the same conclusion.

Q1 (10 marks). How to answer: Two issues. For Static Orchard, walk the emails in order and say what each one did to the offer. For Noor, apply the capacity rule and the certainty rule. Answer: Issue 1. Is Aurora bound to Static Orchard? (1)

Rule. A contract needs offer, acceptance and consideration, and the terms must be certain. A counter-offer rejects the original offer and ends it, and the other side is then free to accept or reject the counter-offer. Silence is not acceptance. An offer may be withdrawn before it is accepted, and a withdrawal takes effect when it is communicated. An agreement to agree on an essential term cannot be enforced. (1)

Application. Sofia's March 1 email is an offer: it names the act, the date, the fee and a deadline (1). Jax's March 4 reply adds a new term, a hospitality and hotel rider, so it is a counter-offer. It rejects the original offer and ends it (2). Jax's March 7 "we accept" therefore has nothing to accept: at most it is a new offer, and Aurora never accepted it (1). Jax will argue that his March 4 email was only a request about the rider and that the offer stayed open until March 8. Even then Aurora withdrew at 9:00 AM on March 7, before his 4:00 PM acceptance, and a withdrawal likely takes effect when the email arrives, not when he chooses to read it (1). And the rider, "details to follow", is an agreement to agree on a cost term, which is too uncertain to enforce (1).

Conclusion. There is probably no contract, so Aurora is not bound and has no liability for booking another headliner (1). Issue 2. Can Aurora hold Noor, a 17-year-old, to her agreement? Rule. A minor's contract is voidable at the minor's election, except contracts for necessaries and beneficial contracts of service; a minor may affirm on reaching majority. Application. Noor is under 18 and a performance agreement is not a necessary, so it is voidable at her election and she can walk away (Keith's Winter 2026 key treats an entertainment agreement this way) (1). Aurora can argue it was a beneficial contract of service (an engagement to perform for pay), which would bind her, but the agreement is also uncertain on the merchandise share, "to be agreed", which is an agreement to agree (1). Conclusion. Aurora probably cannot hold Noor, and should have had a parent or guardian co-sign and fixed the merchandise share (1).

Q2 (10 marks). How to answer: Build the grid: two plaintiffs against Aurora, Steelline and Barrier Co. (and Tom, the inspector). Do the four-part test once for each defendant, with causation kept separate because several things went wrong together. Then handle the two plaintiffs differently: Mateo has no fault, Lena has contributory negligence and a risk argument. Answer: Issue. Can Mateo and Lena succeed in negligence, occupiers' liability and product liability against Aurora, Steelline and Barrier Co.? (1)

Rule. Negligence needs duty, breach of the standard of care (that of a reasonable person with the same expertise), causation (but for) and damages. An occupier must take reasonable care to see that people on the premises are reasonably safe (Occupiers' Liability Act s. 3(1)). A manufacturer owes consumers a duty of care to make its product safe (Donoghue v Stevenson). An employer is vicariously liable for an employee's negligence. A defendant need not be the only cause. Contributory negligence reduces damages. Voluntary assumption of risk requires that the plaintiff knew of the risk and agreed to give up the right to sue, and under s. 4 an occupier whose entrant willingly takes a risk must still avoid deliberate harm and reckless disregard. (2)

Application. Aurora (3): it is the occupier and Mateo and Lena are ticket holders. A reasonable organizer does not open the gates on a crowd barrier it has not inspected. Aurora's own policy required an inspection and Priya told Tom to "just sign it off", so there is breach by Aurora directly, and it is also vicariously liable for Tom, its employee. Causation: a surge at a concert is foreseeable, and a proper inspection would have found the short stakes, so but for the sign-off the barrier would not have been used. Steelline (1): it owed a duty to the crowd and breached it by ignoring the manufacturer's instructions on stakes, and it is vicariously liable for Dev. Barrier Co. (1): as manufacturer it owed users a duty and used welds below the industry standard, a manufacturing defect, though causation is less certain because the stakes may have been the real reason the barrier fell; each defendant will blame the others, but the plaintiffs need only show each was a cause, and the court shares the loss. Damages (1): general damages for pain and suffering and special damages for medical costs and lost income, for each plaintiff. Defences (1): Mateo has none. Lena ignored the signs and announcements, so she is contributorily negligent and her damages are reduced, probably substantially. Voluntary assumption of risk fails, because she did not agree to give up a claim, and even if s. 4 applied, Aurora's decision to skip the inspection could be reckless disregard. Conclusion. Mateo likely succeeds against all three, with Aurora and Steelline the strongest. Lena also likely succeeds against Aurora and Steelline, with a large reduction for her own fault (1).

Q3 (6 marks). How to answer: Two nuisance claims. Private nuisance for the noise and fumes, public nuisance for the road, which gives special damage. Then the permit defence and remedies. Answer: Issue. Can Gloria succeed in private and public nuisance against Aurora? (0.5)

Rule. Nuisance is a strict liability tort, so fault is not needed. Private nuisance is a substantial and unreasonable interference with an occupier's use and enjoyment of land; a court weighs the severity and duration of the interference, the character of the area, how sensitive the plaintiff is, and how useful the defendant's activity is. Public nuisance is an interference with the lawful use of public lands, such as a road; a private person can sue only for special damage, loss that is greater than the public's general inconvenience. (1.5)

Application. Private nuisance (2): three nights of amplified music until 2:00 AM and dust and diesel fumes over her berry fields interfere substantially with her use of the land and her business. The interference lasted only a weekend and a festival has social value, but a rural farm is a quiet area, and Aurora could have set earlier sound cut-offs and controlled dust, so the interference is likely unreasonable. Public nuisance (1.5): blocking the only public road for twelve hours interferes with the public's right to use it, and Gloria suffered special damage, $18,000 in lost sales, which is more than the public's general inconvenience. Defence (0.5): the municipal permit helps only if the harm was an unavoidable result of what the permit allowed, and these harms were avoidable. Remedies (0.5): damages (the $18,000 and crop or business losses) and an injunction limiting hours and traffic next time. Conclusion. Gloria will likely succeed, most clearly on the road blockage.

Q4 (6 marks). How to answer: False imprisonment against Dale and Aurora (Collis test), then malicious prosecution against Marcus (Curley v Taafe test), noting that the weak element is malice. Answer: Issue. Can Omar succeed in false imprisonment against Dale and Aurora, and in malicious prosecution against Marcus? (0.5)

Rule. False imprisonment (Collis v Toronto Police Services Board): an intentional, total confinement of a person against that person's will, without lawful justification; confinement can be psychological as well as physical. Malicious prosecution (Curley v Taafe): the defendant initiated the prosecution, it ended in the plaintiff's favour, there was no reasonable and probable cause, and the defendant acted with malice. (1.5)

Application. False imprisonment (2): Dale told Omar he could not leave and kept him in a locked trailer for 90 minutes, which is intentional, total confinement against his will. A suspicion based on a large bag is not lawful justification, and Dale did not catch Omar committing an offence. Aurora is vicariously liable because Dale was its employee acting in the course of his job. Omar can claim general damages for loss of liberty and humiliation, and punitive damages if the conduct was high-handed. Malicious prosecution (2): Marcus initiated the prosecution, because the police charged Omar after he gave them false information (the police's own decision does not protect someone who supplied the false story); the charge was withdrawn, which is a result in Omar's favour; and Marcus had no reasonable and probable cause, since he had confused Omar with someone else. The weak point is malice, which needs an improper purpose: a careless mix-up is not malice, although stating a falsehood to push police into charging may allow a court to infer it. Conclusion. The false imprisonment claim is strong against Dale and Aurora; malicious prosecution is possible but likely fails on malice (0.5).

Q5 (6 marks). How to answer: Split the two statements. "Pays performers late" is partly true. "Pocketed the insurance money" is false and accuses Priya of theft. Take the elements, then the defences one by one, then damages, and say who can sue for what. Answer: Issue. Can Priya and Aurora succeed in defamation against Rae? (0.5)

Rule. The plaintiff must prove that the words were defamatory (they would lower the plaintiff's reputation in the eyes of a reasonable person), referred to the plaintiff, and were communicated to at least one other person. A post on social media is a permanent form, so it is libel. Defences include truth, qualified privilege (lost by malice) and responsible communication on a matter of public interest. A company can sue for harm to its reputation. (1.5)

Application. Priya (2): "pocketed the insurance money" accuses her of theft, refers to her by name and was seen by 200,000 people, so the elements are met. Truth fails because she took nothing. Qualified privilege does not apply to a public post to an audience with no duty or interest. Responsible communication fails because Rae had no evidence and did not check. Aurora (1): the "pays late" statement is partly true, since one band was paid two weeks late, so truth likely protects most of it, although it overstates one late payment into a habit; the insurance allegation also harms Aurora's reputation because it accuses its director of theft. Damages (1): general damages for harm to reputation, special damages for the $60,000 in sponsors and Priya's lost contract if causation is shown, and punitive damages if Rae acted maliciously. Conclusion. Priya has a strong claim; Aurora's claim is good on the insurance allegation and weak on the late-payment allegation (0.5).

Q6 (2 marks). Answer: Conclusion. (c). Aurora's promise came after Jess finished the work, and Aurora had not asked her to do it, so the work is past consideration: it was not given in exchange for the promise and cannot support it. Option (a) is wrong because writing does not replace consideration. Option (b) is wrong because the consideration is missing. Option (d) is wrong because value to the promisor does not matter if it was not exchanged for the promise. Option (e) is wrong because a corporation has capacity to contract.

Q7 (7 marks). How to answer: Marcus is a director, so the relationship is fiduciary by category, and you need not run the three-part test, although it is safe to mention it. State the duties, apply them to the concealment and the resale, deal with the excuse that Aurora could not have bought the field, and finish with remedies. Answer: Issue. Has Marcus breached his fiduciary duty to Aurora, and what remedies does Aurora have? (0.5)

Rule. A director is a fiduciary of the corporation by category and must act honestly and in good faith in the corporation's best interests. A fiduciary must act solely in the beneficiary's best interests, avoid conflicts of interest, not profit personally from the position without informed consent, and disclose all material information and opportunities. A director may not take for himself a corporate opportunity that arises through the role. Remedies are an account of profits, equitable compensation, and a constructive trust over the property. (1.5)

Application. Marcus is a director, and the board had told him to look for land, so the field was an opportunity within his role and of clear interest to Aurora (1.5). He kept it secret, bought it personally and planned to resell it to Aurora at a $1,500,000 markup, so he put his own interest in conflict with Aurora's, did not disclose, and sought a secret profit (2). His excuse that Aurora could not have bought it is not a defence: the duty was to disclose and let the board decide whether it could finance the purchase (0.5). Remedies (1): an account of profits, so Marcus gives up any profit he makes on the field; a constructive trust, so that he must transfer the field to Aurora at his cost of $2,000,000; or equitable compensation. Conclusion. Aurora has a very strong claim for breach of fiduciary duty (0).

Q8 (6 marks). How to answer: The tort is easy (intentional damage to property), so say so quickly and spend your time on the defence of necessity, using Keith's wording (no other option but to commit the tort), and give Pat's best counter-argument. Answer: Issue. Is Sam liable to Pat for the damage, or does necessity excuse him? (0.5)

Rule. Smashing someone's window on purpose is an intentional interference with property, which makes out the tort; the burden then shifts to the defendant to prove a defence. Necessity is a defence where there was no other option but to commit the tort, there was a real and imminent danger, and the harm caused was proportionate to the harm avoided. (1.5)

Application. The tort is made out: Sam broke the window deliberately (0.5). Necessity (3): the danger was real and imminent, since a dog was panting heavily in a locked car at 35°C and then lay down and barely moved; Sam first asked the guards for help and they delayed, so he had tried the reasonable alternative; waiting for the owner or police was not practical when the dog was failing; and breaking one window was proportionate to the risk of the dog's death. Pat will argue that Sam could have called the police or animal services first and could not be sure the situation was an emergency, and that the dog was frightened. These points weaken the defence only if Sam had realistic time and means to do something else. Conclusion. Necessity likely succeeds and Sam is not liable (0.5).

Score yourself

45 to 53 (85% and up): you are ready, so keep rehearsing the cheat sheet. 37 to 44 (70 to 84%): solid; check where marks went, usually a missing defence or no counter-argument. 29 to 36 (55 to 69%): re-read the summary for each lost question and redo the matching real question from Keith's old exams. Below 29: redo the Winter 2026 and Fall 2023 questions before attempting another full paper. The marks most often lost on handwritten law exams are forgetting to name the test or case, skipping the other side's best argument, ignoring the defences and remedies that the paper's instructions ask for, and not stating a conclusion, so check for those first.

Extra mock paper for the final exam (older format, beyond the midterm scope)

Do not use this paper to practise for the midterm. I wrote it before Keith's materials arrived, as a 100-mark paper in an estimated format, and it tests material beyond the midterm scope (guarantees and indemnities, void and voidable contracts, delivery-slip terms, good faith under Bhasin). Use the Fall 2026-format mock in the previous section for the midterm, and keep this one for the final exam.

This is a full practice paper built to match what we know about the real one: 2 hours, handwritten, IRAC. Keith has not posted a practice midterm or a mark breakdown, so the structure and marks below are an estimate of a sensible paper, not his. Use it to practise timing and writing, not to guess the real mark allocation.

How to use it: write the paper by hand on lined paper with the cheat sheet you plan to bring, set a 2-hour timer, and do not look at the marking guide until the timer ends. Then mark yourself honestly against the guide and note which topics cost you marks.

Suggested time plan (100 marks over 120 minutes, about 1.2 minutes per mark): Section A 35 minutes, Section B 40 minutes, Section C 40 minutes, 5 minutes to reread. If a problem has four parts worth 14, 6, 8 and 6 marks, spend your time in the same proportions.

The paper

Section A: Short answers (32 marks; 8 questions at 4 marks each; answer all)

A1. Define battery and assault, explain the difference, and give an example of each.

A2. State the Kamloops v Nielsen test for a duty of care and explain what each step asks.

A3. Explain contributory negligence and voluntary assumption of risk, and say what effect each has on the plaintiff's claim.

A4. Distinguish an offer from an invitation to treat, and give an example of an invitation to treat.

A5. State the rule in Foakes v Beer and explain how Ontario law has changed it.

A6. Distinguish a void contract from a voidable contract, and give one example of each.

A7. What is the difference between a guarantee and an indemnity, and why does it matter?

A8. What does the duty of honest performance in Bhasin v Hrynew require? Give an example of a breach.

Section B: Torts problem (34 marks)

Sam spends four hours at the Lakeside Pub drinking beer. By 11:00 PM he is slurring his words and the bartender has noticed, but the manager, Ms. Singh, has told staff: "We have never had a problem here, so keep serving; it is good for the numbers." At 11:30 PM Sam insults the doorman, Ali. Ali grabs Sam by the collar and shoves him out the door onto the sidewalk. It is January and -15°C, Sam's coat is inside, and the pub sits on a rural highway with no sidewalk lights. Sam staggers onto the road and is hit by a car driven by Lee, who was driving 30 km/h over the limit. Sam breaks his leg and suffers a head injury.

(a) Advise Sam whether the pub is liable to him in negligence. (14 marks)

(b) Is Ali liable for the shove, and is the pub responsible for what Ali did? (6 marks)

(c) Discuss the defences and the other parties' fault. (8 marks)

(d) Discuss any ethical issues raised by the pub's conduct. (6 marks)

Section C: Contracts problem (34 marks)

Aria runs a bakery. On Monday Zed Mills Ltd texts her: "500 kg bread flour at $900, delivered in two weeks. Reply by Wednesday noon if you want it." On Tuesday Aria texts back a thumbs-up emoji (👍). Two weeks later Zed delivers the flour with a delivery slip that Aria signs to confirm receipt. In small print the slip says that all disputes must be heard in Manitoba, that there are no refunds, and that unpaid amounts bear interest at 3 percent per month. Aria never reads it. She is short of cash, tells Zed she can pay only $600 and asks him to accept that as full payment of the $900. Zed's owner writes back, "OK, send $600 and we are square," and Aria pays $600. Six months later Zed sues Aria for the remaining $300 plus interest, and Zed's lawyer also says that Zed never made an offer in the first place, only gave a quote.

(a) Was a contract formed on Monday and Tuesday? (12 marks)

(b) Is Aria bound by the terms on the delivery slip? (8 marks)

(c) Can Zed recover the $300? (10 marks)

(d) Give a brief overall conclusion and one piece of practical advice for each party. (4 marks)

Stop here: write the paper before you read further

Marking guide and model answers Open it only after you have written the paper

Marks in brackets show where the points are earned. Award yourself the mark if you made the point in your own words, even if your wording was shorter.

Section A

A1 (4 marks). How to answer: define each tort with its elements, say the key difference (contact), then one example each. Answer: Battery is the intentional, harmful or offensive physical contact with another person without consent (1). Assault is an intentional act that causes the plaintiff to reasonably fear imminent harmful or offensive contact (1). The difference is that assault needs no contact, only apprehension, while battery needs contact (1). Example: swinging a fist and stopping short is assault; hitting the person is battery (1).

A2 (4 marks). How to answer: name the case, give the two steps in order, and say what each asks. Answer: Kamloops v Nielsen sets a two-step test. Step 1: is there a sufficiently close relationship that carelessness might reasonably be contemplated to cause damage, which is reasonable foreseeability of harm to this plaintiff (2). Step 2: are there considerations that negate or limit the scope of the duty, the class of persons owed it, or the damages that may result, which is the policy step (2).

A3 (4 marks). How to answer: define each, state the effect, and contrast them. Answer: Contributory negligence is the plaintiff's own failure to take reasonable care for their own safety that helped cause the harm (1); damages are reduced in proportion to the plaintiff's fault under the Negligence Act (1). Voluntary assumption of risk means the plaintiff knew of the risk and willingly accepted it (1); it is a complete defence, so the plaintiff recovers nothing (OLA s. 4, Schneider) (1).

A4 (4 marks). How to answer: define both by the intention to be bound, then give an example. Answer: An offer is a definite proposal that shows the offeror's intention to be bound as soon as the offeree accepts it (1.5). An invitation to treat only invites others to make offers and the person inviting is not bound (1.5). Examples: goods displayed with a price in a store, a catalogue, or an advertisement (1).

A5 (4 marks). How to answer: state the common law rule, then the Ontario statute. Answer: Foakes v Beer holds that a creditor's promise to accept less than the full debt is not binding because the debtor gives no new consideration, so the creditor may still sue for the balance (2). In Ontario the Mercantile Law Amendment Act s. 16 changed this: part payment that is actually made and expressly accepted by the creditor in satisfaction extinguishes the debt without new consideration (2).

A6 (4 marks). How to answer: define each by what happens to the contract, and pair each with a course example. Answer: A void contract is treated as never having existed, so no rights or title pass (1.5); example: mutual mistake as in Raffles v Wichelhaus, or a fraudster impersonating a real firm as in Cundy v Lindsay (0.5). A voidable contract is valid until the innocent party chooses to set it aside (1.5); example: a contract induced by misrepresentation, undue influence or duress, or a fictitious-firm fraud as in King's Norton (0.5).

A7 (4 marks). How to answer: define both by who is primarily liable, then link to the Statute of Frauds. Answer: A guarantee is a secondary promise to pay another person's debt if that person defaults (1); an indemnity is a primary promise to pay or to cover a loss whether or not the other person is liable (1). It matters because under the Statute of Frauds a guarantee must be in writing and signed by the guarantor to be enforceable (1), while an indemnity needs no writing (1).

A8 (4 marks). How to answer: state the duty in the Bhasin words, say it covers performance, and give a short example. Answer: Bhasin v Hrynew recognized that every Canadian contract has an organizing principle of good faith and a duty of honest performance (1.5). Parties must not lie to or knowingly mislead each other about matters directly linked to performance of the contract (1.5). Example: a supplier tells a dealer that the contract will be renewed while it has already decided not to renew (1).

Section B

How to answer: do each lettered part in IRAC order. For (a) run the four parts of the negligence test and use Menow and Murphy as the analogous cases the course gave; for (b) name battery and vicarious liability; for (c) name contributory negligence, voluntary assumption of risk and other people's fault; for (d) use incrementalism and overconfidence bias and tie them to a framework.

Answer: (a) Negligence by the pub (14 marks). Issue: is the pub liable in negligence for Sam's injuries (1)? Rule: duty, breach, causation, damage on a balance of probabilities (1). Duty (3): Donoghue and Kamloops. A commercial host that serves alcohol to a visibly intoxicated patron has a close relationship with him, and harm to an intoxicated person from being turned out in the cold near a highway is foreseeable. In Menow v Honsberger and Jordan House the court held that an innkeeper who ejected an intoxicated patron who was later hit by a car owed him a duty of care, and in Murphy v Little Memphis Cabaret a bar was liable for ejecting a patron into danger. No policy reason negates the duty. Breach (3): a reasonable licensed establishment would stop serving a visibly intoxicated patron, would not put him out into -15°C without his coat beside an unlit highway, and would arrange a taxi or a safe place to wait. The pub did none of these, and Ms. Singh's instruction to "keep serving" makes breach very likely. Causation (4): but for continuing to serve Sam and ejecting him in that state, he would not have been on the road. Lee's speeding is an intervening act, but it does not break the chain because being struck by a car is exactly the type of harm that makes ejecting an intoxicated person onto a road foreseeable (The Wagon Mound), and the pub need not be the sole cause. Damage (1): a broken leg and a head injury; special damages (medical costs, lost income) and general damages (pain and suffering). Conclusion (1): the pub is very likely liable.

(b) Ali's shove (6 marks). Ali's grabbing and shoving Sam is an intentional, harmful or offensive contact without consent, which is a battery (2). Insults do not justify force; the pub has no defence of self-defence or defence of property, because words alone are not an attack and Sam was not trespassing (1). The pub is vicariously liable because Ali was an employee and removing patrons is part of a doorman's job, so even excessive force is closely connected to his employment (2). The pub is therefore liable for Ali's battery as well as for its own negligence (1).

(c) Defences and other parties (8 marks). Contributory negligence (3): Sam's heavy drinking and his walking onto a dark highway fell below the care a reasonable person takes for his own safety, so a court may reduce his damages by a proportion; but he was visibly intoxicated and was forced out, so his share will be modest. Voluntary assumption of risk (2): fails, because Sam did not knowingly and willingly accept the risk and an intoxicated person cannot fairly be said to have done so; he also did not consent to being ejected. Lee (2): Lee was negligent in speeding 30 km/h over the limit, so fault can be apportioned between the pub, Lee and Sam under the Negligence Act, although the pub cannot escape liability by pointing to Lee. Conclusion (1): Sam recovers, with his award reduced for his own fault.

(d) Ethics (6 marks). Overconfidence bias (2): Ms. Singh's "we have never had a problem here" overestimates the pub's safety record and ignores a known risk. Incrementalism (2): serving one more drink to a patron, then another, then doing so as a habit to protect revenue became accepted practice, and ejecting a drunk patron seemed a small step beyond. Framework (1): on a duty-based view the pub failed its duty to care for patrons in its custody, and on a consequences-based view a small gain in sales does not justify serious harm. Risk management (1): a firm cut-off policy, training, a safe-ride program, and refusing to eject intoxicated patrons into danger.

Section C

How to answer: take (a) to (d) in order. For (a) decide offer, then acceptance (with the emoji case), then say consideration is clear. For (b) use Tilden. For (c) state the common law rule (Foakes v Beer), the Ontario fix (s. 16), and the estoppel alternative. Put the short conclusion at the end.

Answer: (a) Formation (12 marks). Issue: was there a contract on Monday and Tuesday (1)? Offer (3): Zed's text names the goods, the quantity, the price and the delivery time, and tells Aria to "reply by Wednesday noon if you want it." That is a definite proposal inviting acceptance and showing an intention to be bound, so it is an offer. A mere general price list or advertisement would be an invitation to treat, but this was directed to one person with a deadline, so Zed's argument that it was only a quote fails. Acceptance (5): Aria replied within the deadline, in the same medium and in response to the offer. A thumbs-up emoji can be a valid acceptance (South West Terminal v Achter Land, 2023 SKKB 116). Zed could argue that a thumbs-up might only mean "received" and is ambiguous, but courts interpret objectively using the surrounding circumstances (Sattva), and a reasonable person who had just been told to reply if she wanted the flour would read the emoji as "yes." Consideration and intention (2): Zed gives flour and Aria promises $900, which is consideration, and a commercial context creates a presumption of intention to be bound. Conclusion (1): a contract was formed on Tuesday.

(b) Delivery slip (8 marks). Issue: do the slip's terms bind Aria (1)? Rule (2): onerous or unusual terms in a standard-form document are not binding unless the other party brought them reasonably to the signer's attention (Tilden Rent-A-Car v Clendenning); terms must also be part of the contract at the time it is made. Application (4): the contract was formed on Tuesday on the terms in the texts, so terms that first appear two weeks later on a delivery slip were never agreed, and Aria gave no consideration for them. Even if the signed slip counted, a Manitoba forum clause, a no-refund clause and 3 percent monthly interest are onerous, Zed did nothing to highlight them, and Aria signed only to confirm receipt, so under Tilden the terms do not bind her. Conclusion (1): the small-print terms are not part of the contract.

(c) The $300 (10 marks). Issue: can Zed still recover the remaining $300 (1)? Rule (3): at common law, a promise to accept less than a full debt is not binding without new consideration (Foakes v Beer), so Zed could ordinarily sue for the balance. In Ontario, under the Mercantile Law Amendment Act s. 16, part payment that is actually paid and expressly accepted in satisfaction extinguishes the whole obligation without new consideration. Alternatively, promissory estoppel (Frito-Lay) holds a party to a clear promise not to enforce strict rights if the other party relied on it, and it works as a shield and not a sword. Application (5): Aria gave no new consideration for Zed's promise, so at common law Zed would win. But Zed's owner wrote, "send $600 and we are square," which is an express acceptance of part payment in satisfaction, and Aria actually paid $600, so s. 16 extinguishes the debt. Estoppel gives the same result: Zed clearly promised to take $600, Aria relied on it by paying, and she is using the promise defensively, as a shield. Conclusion (1): Zed's claim for the $300 and the interest fails.

(d) Conclusion and advice (4 marks). Aria is bound to the contract for $900 of flour, but the delivery-slip terms do not bind her and she owes nothing further because Zed accepted $600 in full satisfaction (2). Practical advice (2): Zed should state the terms, the method of acceptance and any onerous clause before the contract is formed and should say clearly whether a message is a binding offer or a price list; Aria should not rely on emojis in a commercial deal and should get her payment arrangement in writing.

Score yourself

85 to 100: you are ready, so keep rehearsing the cheat sheet. 70 to 84: solid; look at where marks went (usually missing a defence, or no counterargument). 55 to 69: re-read the topic summary for each lost question and redo the matching problem in the earlier sections. Below 55: do the short-answer sections again before attempting another full paper. The most common lost marks on handwritten law exams are forgetting to name the case behind a test, skipping the other side's best argument, and not stating a conclusion, so check for those three first.

Cheat sheet blueprint: what to put on the one double-sided page

Keith's deck tells you to make your own cheat sheet, adding details from the lectures and readings, and your course materials allow one 8.5 × 11 sheet written on both sides. The old midterms differed (Fall 2023 was closed book, Winter 2026 was open book), so confirm the aids rule, and whether the sheet may be typed, with Keith before you decide how small to go (typed text at 6 to 7 pt fits roughly three times what neat handwriting does). The blueprint below is built for neat handwriting, and each box is written in the shorthand you would actually copy.

Principles. Put on the sheet what you cannot reliably recall under pressure: case names with a one-line rule, tests with their numbered elements, statute names and section numbers, and an IRAC skeleton for each kind of problem. Leave off long explanations, because practising the problems teaches those. Lay the sheet out in the same order you will write the answers, so your eye moves down the page as your answer does. Leave about a tenth of the space blank for gaps you find during the mock exam. Finish a draft by about October 20, write the timed mock exam from the previous section using the sheet, then trim and fix it on October 22.

If you run out of room, cut in this order: the constitution line in Box 2, passing off, then the weaker case names. Never cut the negligence test, defamation and its defences, the fiduciary test, the misrepresentation test, inducing breach and unlawful interference (all tested on Keith's old exams), the formation rules, the capacity rule, or the IRAC skeletons. Contracts Boxes 6 to 10 (mistake, misrepresentation as a ground for setting aside, undue influence and duress, writing, interpretation) are final exam only, so leave them off your midterm sheet and use the space for the tort tests Keith has examined.

Handwriting shorthand: P = plaintiff, D = defendant, K = contract, neg = negligence, SoF = Statute of Frauds, rx = remedy, → = leads to, ≠ = not equal, V = void, VB = voidable, UE = unenforceable.

Side 1: Torts (and how to answer)

Box 1. IRAC. Issue (one sentence, conclusion first) → Rule (name the test and the case) → Application (every element, use the facts, give the other side's best argument, analogies) → Conclusion (clear, hedged to match the facts, recommend a step to cut risk). Define each legal term. Answer every question asked and give an example when asked. Plain, direct language.

Box 2. Basics. Civil: Plaintiff v Defendant, compensation (put P back where P would have been), balance of probabilities. Criminal: R v Accused, punishment, beyond a reasonable doubt. Sources of law: legislation, common law (stare decisis), equity, constitution. Constitution Act: s. 91 federal (banking, criminal law, copyright, currency, postal), s. 92 provincial (property and civil rights, hospitals, local matters); federalism, coordinate governments.

Box 3. Intentional torts (P proves every element; D must intend; actionable per se, so nominal damages possible).

Tort Elements
Assault intent + threat + reasonable apprehension of imminent harm (no contact)
Battery intent + unlawful force or contact + no consent
Trespass intent + enter land + no consent
Intentional infliction of mental suffering (Boucher v Wal-Mart, 2014 ONCA 419) flagrant and outrageous; calculated to harm; visible and provable illness
False imprisonment (Collis, 2007) intentional; total confinement against will; no lawful justification (not if police laid the charge)
Malicious prosecution (Curley v Taafe, 2019 ONCA 368) D initiated; ended in P's favour; no reasonable and probable cause; malice
Defamation defamatory + refers to P + published to a third person; libel written, slander spoken; defences: truth, privilege (qualified or absolute), responsible communication (Grant v Torstar, 2009 SCC 61)

Defences to intentional torts: consent (must be informed; cannot consent to death or severe harm), self-defence (necessary, proportionate; self, others or property), necessity, involuntariness, incapacity, legal authority.

Box 4. Strict liability (no fault): Dog Owners' Liability Act s. 2 (damages reduced for P's fault), Rylands v Fletcher (dangerous thing escapes), nuisance (private or public).

Box 5. Negligence (all four, on a balance of probabilities). (1) Duty: Donoghue v Stevenson, [1932] AC 562 (neighbour principle); Kamloops v Nielsen, [1984] 2 SCR 2: (a) close relationship so carelessness might cause harm (foreseeable), (b) policy limits on the scope of the duty, the class of persons and the damages. (2) Standard: reasonable person; professional (higher; specialist higher still; avoid conflicts); child (reasonable child of the same age, unless in an adult activity). (3) Causation: but-for (need not be the only cause; circumstantial evidence, res ipsa loquitur); remoteness: type of harm foreseeable, The Wagon Mound, [1961] AC 388. (4) Damage: special (quantifiable), general (pain), punitive (rare). Not actionable per se, so no damage means no negligence.

Box 6. Defences to negligence. Contributory negligence (partial, Negligence Act, apportion; P contributed to the incident, exposed self to risk, or failed to mitigate). Voluntary assumption of risk (full bar; P knew of and willingly accepted the risk by waiver, express consent or implied consent). Ex turpi causa (illegal act; rare).

Box 7. Special rules. Vicarious liability: employer jointly and severally liable for employees' torts in the course of employment. Product liability = negligence (design, manufacture, failure to warn; continuing duty to warn). Occupiers' Liability Act: s. 3(1) reasonable care so entrants are reasonably safe; trespassers get general humanity (no traps, no reckless disregard); s. 4 risks willingly assumed (Schneider).

Box 8. Misrepresentation and fiduciary. Hedley Byrne (no negligence claim for pure economic loss, so negligent misrepresentation). Negligent (Hercules): statement; false; duty (policy: indeterminate liability by time, class and amount, Livent); reasonable reliance; below standard; loss. Fraudulent: statement; false; D knows or is reckless; reliance; loss. Innocent: no duty or knowledge needed. Fiduciary: category (lawyer, doctor, director, OBCA s. 134(1)) or ad hoc, Frame v Smith, [1987] SCR 99: (1) discretion or power; (2) can use it unilaterally to affect P's interests; (3) P peculiarly vulnerable (all three). Duties: put the beneficiary first; no conflicts; disgorge profits.

Box 9. Business torts (keep: tested in Winter 2026 Q4). Inducing breach (Redtree): D knew of the contract, intended a breach, caused it, damages. Unlawful interference (A.I. Enterprises): unlawful act against a third party that intentionally causes P economic loss. Passing off (Kaastra): goodwill, deception, damage.

Box 10. Ethics. Overconfidence bias: overestimating your own knowledge or ability, so you take bigger risks. Incrementalism: small steps that each look harmless and add up to a serious compromise. Law ≠ ethics. Tie any ethical point to a normative framework (duty, consequences, fairness), and finish with a risk-management step.

Torts case list

Case One-line rule
Donoghue v Stevenson neighbour principle; origin of duty and of product liability
City of Kamloops v Nielsen two-step duty test
Wagon Mound remoteness: type of harm foreseeable
Hedley Byrne v Heller pure economic loss; negligent misstatement
Hercules v Ernst & Young negligent misrepresentation test
Deloitte v Livent indeterminate liability limits the duty
Rylands v Fletcher strict liability for a dangerous escape
Boucher v Wal-Mart mental suffering test
Collis false imprisonment test
Curley v Taafe malicious prosecution test
Grant v Torstar responsible communication defence
Frame v Smith ad hoc fiduciary test
Schneider v St. Clair OLA s. 4 risks willingly assumed
Menow v Honsberger / Murphy v Little Memphis bar or innkeeper owes a duty to an intoxicated patron it ejects
Redtree; A.I. Enterprises; Kaastra inducing breach; unlawful interference; passing off

Side 2: Contracts

Midterm scope: Boxes 1 to 5 are the seven elements of a contract and are on the midterm. Boxes 6 to 10, and the rows of the case list for mistake, misrepresentation as a ground for setting aside, undue influence, unconscionability, writing and interpretation, are beyond the midterm (impeachment, writing and interpretation). They are here for the final exam, so do not spend midterm sheet space on them.

Box 1. Seven elements. Core: offer, acceptance, consideration. Plus: intention to create legal relations, capacity, legality, certainty. Void = never existed; voidable = valid until the innocent party sets it aside.

Box 2. Offer. Definite, communicated, intended to bind on acceptance. Invitation to treat: shelf prices, ads, For Sale signs (the customer makes the offer). Counter-offer rejects the offer and creates a new one. Standard form: contra proferentem; Tilden v Clendenning (1978 ONCA): onerous terms must be brought to the signer's attention. Unilateral offer: accepted by performance.

Box 3. Acceptance. Final, unqualified, communicated (words or conduct; thumbs-up emoji valid, South West Terminal v Achter Land, 2023 SKKB 116). Revoke any time before acceptance (communicated), unless an option was paid for or sealed. Lapse at the stated time. Postal rule: mail and telegram only, effective when posted (Adams v Lindsell, 1818), even if lost (Household Fire v Grant, 1879). Ontario CPA ss. 7(2) and 8: a consumer cannot waive the right to Ontario courts.

Box 4. Consideration. The price promised (not the payment). Adequacy not examined. None for gifts, past acts (Roscorla v Thomas), or an existing legal duty. Part payment of a debt: Foakes v Beer (not binding) → Mercantile Law Amendment Act s. 16 (paid and accepted in satisfaction extinguishes the debt). A seal replaces consideration. Estoppel (Frito-Lay, 1976): existing relationship; promise to release a right; reasonable reliance and hardship; shield, not sword.

Box 5. Other elements. Intention: reasonable bystander; puffery is not binding. Capacity: minors (under 18) VB at the minor's option, bound for necessaries (quantum meruit) and beneficial employment, must repudiate on majority or ratify; mental incompetence same; unions and bands not separate entities; bankrupts limited. Legality: Criminal Code, Income Tax Act, Competition Act, public policy. Certainty: missing price, goods or time means void for uncertainty.

Box 6. Mistake (four types). (1) Terms: typo (VB at the option of the mistaken party if obvious); recording error → rectification (mutual; unilateral only if D knew); ambiguity with two equally reasonable meanings → void, Raffles v Wichelhaus (1864). (2) Subject matter: existence → void; value → only if it changes the quality, Hyrsky v Smith (1969). (3) Identity: real firm → void, Cundy v Lindsay; fictitious → VB, King's Norton v Edridge; innocent third party. (4) Non est factum: nature of the document, caused by the other's misrepresentation, P not careless; rare.

Box 7. Misrepresentation. Fact (not opinion; expert opinion counts as fact) + false + reliance + harm. Types: fraudulent, negligent, innocent. Silence only if there is a duty to disclose or a latent defect (otherwise caveat emptor). Esso v Mardon (1976): estimate given without disclosing known road changes. Re Gabriel (1975): no duty, buyer should inform himself. Remedies: rescission (back to pre-contract positions, promptly), damages for negligent or fraudulent.

Box 8. Undue influence, unconscionability, duress. Undue influence: domination (special relationship, dire circumstances, threat of prosecution, inequality) + unfair terms; independent legal advice helps; VB. Unconscionability: inequality of bargaining power + improvident bargain, Uber v Heller (SCC 2020). Duress: threats of violence or imprisonment (and illegitimate economic pressure leaving no realistic alternative); VB. Other remedies: rectification (rare), repudiation (breach of an essential term: end and sue, or affirm).

Box 9. Writing. Statute of Frauds categories: executor's promise, GUARANTEE, answering for another's tort, MARRIAGE, ratifying a minor's contract, performance not within ONE YEAR, LAND (capitals = the four to know cold). Guarantee = conditional on the debtor's default, needs writing; indemnity = primary, no writing. Writing: any form, several documents, electronic is fine, essential terms (parties, subject matter, price), signed by the party to be charged. No writing: UE not void; keep a deposit only as a defence; quantum meruit; a later memo before the suit works; D must plead it. Part performance: land + acts by P + unequivocally referable. Sale of Goods Act writing rule: not in Ontario or BC. CPA: B2C direct agreements over $50 in writing.

Box 10. Interpretation, good faith, implied terms. Sattva (2014 SCC 53): plain meaning, trade usage, factual matrix, contra proferentem, parol evidence rule nearly gone, presumption of enforcement, commercial reasonableness. Implied term: one the parties would have added had they considered it. Bhasin v Hrynew (2014 SCC 71): implied duty of good faith, honest performance. Sale of Goods Act s. 15 implied terms: fitness (reliance on seller's skill), merchantable quality (by description from a dealer), usage of trade; an express warranty does not cancel an implied one unless inconsistent; otherwise caveat emptor.

Contracts case and statute list

Case or statute One-line rule
Tilden v Clendenning onerous standard-form terms need reasonable notice
South West Terminal v Achter Land thumbs-up emoji can accept
Adams v Lindsell; Household Fire v Grant postal rule; applies even if lost
Roscorla v Thomas past consideration is none
Foakes v Beer; Mercantile Law Amendment Act s. 16 part payment rule and the Ontario change
Frito-Lay promissory estoppel, three parts
Raffles v Wichelhaus two reasonable meanings, void
Hyrsky v Smith mistake changing the quality of the thing
Cundy v Lindsay; King's Norton v Edridge real firm void; fictitious firm voidable
Esso v Mardon; Re Gabriel misrepresentation by non-disclosure; no duty, buyer informs himself
Uber v Heller unconscionable arbitration clause
Sattva; Bhasin interpretation; honest performance
Statute of Frauds; Sale of Goods Act s. 15; Consumer Protection Act writing; implied terms; consumer writing and courts

Answer skeletons (write these in the margin of the sheet as five-line boxes)

Negligence. Issue → Rule (4 parts) → Duty (Donoghue, Kamloops, analogy) → Standard (reasonable person; counter) → Causation (but-for; remoteness) → Damages (special, general, punitive) → Defences (contributory, assumed risk, ex turpi) → Vicarious liability → Conclusion + risk step → Ethics.

Formation. Issue (was a K formed?) → Rule (offer, acceptance, consideration + intention, capacity, legality, certainty) → Apply in time order (offer vs invitation, counter-offer, revocation, lapse, postal rule, consideration, estoppel) → Conclusion.

Setting aside (final exam only). Issue (can the K be rescinded?) → Rule (mistake type, misrepresentation 4 elements and 3 types, undue influence 2 parts, duress, unconscionability) → Apply (fact vs opinion, duty to disclose, reliance, harm) → Remedy (void vs VB, rescission, damages, rectification) → Conclusion.

Writing (final exam only). Does the Statute of Frauds apply (guarantee vs indemnity, land, over one year, marriage)? → Enough writing (essential terms, signed by the party to be charged)? → If not UE, not void → part performance, deposit, quantum meruit → Conclusion.

Defamation (on every old midterm). Issue (can P sue D for the statement?) → Rule (defamatory + refers to P + communicated to someone else; libel written or permanent, slander spoken) → Split the statements (fact or opinion, game or real life, which are actually defamatory) → Defences one by one (truth, privilege and how malice defeats it, responsible communication) → Damages (general, special, punitive) → Conclusion.

Fiduciary. Issue → Rule (category, or the three-part test: scope for discretion, unilateral exercise affecting P's interests, peculiar vulnerability; then the four duties: best interests, avoid conflicts, no profit without consent, disclose) → Relationship → Each breach (conflict, secret profit, non-disclosure) → Excuse → Remedies (account of profits, constructive trust, equitable compensation) → Conclusion.

Misrepresentation. Issue → Rule (false statement of existing fact, not opinion, that induced the contract; test: statement of fact, false, reasonable reliance, loss) → Fact, opinion or puffery → Type by state of mind (fraudulent, negligent with a duty of care, innocent) → Inducement and reliance → Counter (should have checked, caveat emptor) → Remedies (rescission; damages for negligent or fraudulent) → Conclusion.

Business torts. Inducing breach: knew of the contract → inducement → breach → damage. Unlawful interference: unlawful act against a third party → intent to harm P economically → harm. Then vicarious liability for the employer, the "would have breached anyway" counter, and damages.

Capacity (minor). Under 18 → contract voidable at the minor's election → necessaries (food, clothing, shelter) and beneficial employment bind → affirm or avoid → affirm or repudiate on reaching majority → apply to each contract in the question.

Intentional torts and defences. Elements of each tort (briefly) → defences, which D must prove (consent, self-defence, necessity, involuntariness, incapacity, legal authority) → damages → Conclusion.

Your sheet in the last week

Reading week, October 12 to 16: write Winter 2026 and then Fall 2023 by hand against the clock without notes, mark them against Keith's answers, and start your sheet from the boxes above. The first class back (the week of October 19) is Keith's review: write his answers to the deck questions onto your sheet and into this guide. October 19 to 20: draft both sides of the sheet and test it on Q1 to Q6 of the full-problem section (skip the two marked Final exam only). October 21: write the mock exam in Keith's format, with the sheet and a timer. October 22: fix every gap the mock exposed, rewrite the sheet neatly, and stop adding things. October 23: light reread only. October 24: sleep, eat and arrive early with two pens.

Final exam only: privity and assignment

Keith's note ends the midterm before impeachment of a contract, and privity and assignment come after that, so they are not on the midterm. This short version is for the final exam.

Privity. Only the parties to a contract are bound by it or can sue on it, so a stranger has no contract remedy (but may sue in tort, which does not need privity). Exceptions: novation (end the old contract and make a new one with the third party, with everyone's consent, which releases the original party); vicarious performance (a third party performs for the promisor, who stays responsible, unless the contract needs personal performance); trusts (a settlor transfers property to a trustee for a beneficiary, who can enforce; a constructive trust is an equitable remedy that forces the notional trustee to perform, usually by transferring property); insurance beneficiaries (provincial statutes); an undisclosed principal can sue; leases and land (the new owner is bound by an existing lease); and exemption clauses, where a third party (employee, agent, director) may rely on the clause if the contracting parties intended to protect them and the third party's activities fall within the scope of the contract and the clause (London Drugs v Kuehne & Nagel, [1992] 3 SCR 299). An enurement clause extends rights to heirs, successors and assignees.

Assignment. An assignment transfers a party's contractual rights (benefits only, not obligations) to a third party; the right is a chose in action. The three people are the promisor (the other original party), the assignor (who transfers) and the assignee (who receives). A statutory (legal) assignment under the Conveyancing and Law of Property Act must be absolute, in writing, and followed by written notice to the promisor; the assignee can then sue the promisor alone. An equitable assignment fails one of those requirements, so the assignor stays a party and all three must be joined in the suit. Every assignment needs notice, not consent; if the promisor ignores notice and pays the assignor, it must pay again. The assignee takes no better title than the assignor had, so the promisor keeps its prior rights against the assignor, such as set-off and rescission. Assignment also happens by operation of law on death (to the estate) and bankruptcy (to the trustee).

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