MMidterm Practice DeckFall 2026 · Laurier BBA
BU 252 · Marketing

Midterm Practice Questions

The questions most likely to appear on the October 25 midterm (Chapters 1-4 and 6-8), each with how to answer it and the answer.

About the tags. Nobody outside the exam team knows the real questions. Very likely, Likely and Possible rank each question by how heavily the course stresses that skill, so learn the method behind each answer rather than the numbers.

Start here: the exam, how to use this guide, and the traps

The exam. The BU 252 midterm is Sunday, October 25, 8:30 to 9:30 PM, one hour, and it is the same paper for every section. The syllabus says the questions are multiple choice and short answer ("not limited to" those), and the scope is Chapters 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7 and 8. Chapter 5 is out, and so are Chapters 9 and 11, even though they are taught the week before the exam. You are responsible for the textbook, the slides and class discussion.

What no one can tell you. Nobody outside the instructors can know the actual questions, and Dr. Butt has not posted a practice midterm or a question count. The likelihood tags below are a ranking by how much emphasis the course gives each idea, not a prediction. The ranking rests on three signals: the "Test Your Knowledge" items and answer explanations in the chapter slides (the most likely source of a common exam), the calculations and worked examples shown in class, and the frameworks the slides stress by name (CDSTEP, SWOT, BCG, the growth matrix, STP, the five-step research process, the six new-product stages and the product life cycle).

Tag What it means
Very likely A slide Test Your Knowledge item, a stressed framework, or a calculation shown in class. Be able to answer it cold.
Likely Covered clearly in the slides or notes with an example; a good candidate for a multiple-choice question or a short definition.
Possible A detail (a statistic, a named example, a minor definition) that a single question might use. Learn it last.

How each question is laid out. Every question has a stem, then "How to answer" (the thinking or the rule to apply), then "Answer" (the full answer with the reasoning). Multiple-choice questions give the letter and say why each wrong option fails when that helps. Short-answer questions give a model answer you could write in a few lines.

How the guide is organized. One section per chapter in order (1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8), then a section of integrative short-answer questions, then a timed 1-hour mock exam, then its answer key, then 30 rapid-fire questions for the last night.

Time plan for the real exam. One hour is tight. If the paper has about 30 multiple-choice questions and a few short answers, spend about 35 minutes on the multiple choice (a minute each, flagging anything that needs more) and about 20 minutes on the short answers, and keep 5 minutes to review. Answer short-answer questions in this order: name the concept, define it in one line, apply it to the case in the question, then conclude. Markers give marks for the application, not only the definition.

Multiple-choice habits. Read the last line first, because "which is NOT" questions are common on the slides. Cross out two options before choosing. Watch for options that are true statements but answer a different question, and for look-alike pairs (evoked set vs retrieval set, alpha vs beta testing, market orientation vs value-based orientation, differentiated vs concentrated targeting, secondary vs primary data).

Where the slide answer keys are wrong. Several Test Your Knowledge slides show a letter in the speaker notes that disagrees with the slide's own explanation. This guide follows the explanation text. If one of these appears on the exam, trust the reasoning below.

Topic Slide letter problem Use this answer
Ch 1: what makes a firm value driven One notes slide shows C Share information, balance benefits with costs, build customer relationships
Ch 4: factor NOT affecting search Notes show A "The kind of search" is not on the list (benefits vs costs, locus of control, risk and product type are)
Ch 4: NOT a step for postpurchase satisfaction Notes show A Building unrealistic expectations
Ch 4: situational factors illustration Notes show A The Priya and Tiffany scenario
Ch 4: least time and effort Notes show A Habitual decision making
Ch 6: geographic segmentation is most useful Notes show C When needs vary by region
Ch 6: geodemographic tool Notes show C PRIZM
Ch 8: share of new consumer goods that fail One slide shows 50, another explains 95 95%
Ch 8: what diffusion of innovation helps you understand Notes show C The rate at which consumers adopt a new product

Numbers worth memorizing before you start: diffusion shares 2.5, 13.5, 34, 34 and 16 percent; baby boomers born 1946 to 1964 and Gen X born 1965 to 1981; online survey response rate 30 to 35 percent (phone 10 to 15, mail 1 to 2); PRIZM has 67 lifestyle clusters; the BCG matrix has two axes (relative market share and market growth rate).

Chapter 1: Overview of Marketing (20 questions)

Q1Very likely

Define marketing.

Q2Very likely

Explain the difference between a need and a want, and give one example of each.

Q3Very likely

Which of the following is NOT part of a marketing exchange? (A) Sellers provide products and services. (B) Sellers communicate and facilitate delivery. (C) Marketers assess the effectiveness of their advertising. (D) Buyers complete the exchange by giving money and information.

Q4Likely

Using an online purchase from Indigo as the example, explain what is exchanged and why an exchange is not just money for a product.

Q5Very likely

Name the four Ps and the type of value each one handles.

Q6Very likely

"Promotion is ____ by a marketer that informs, persuades and reminds customers about a product or service." (A) distribution (B) pricing (C) exchange (D) communication

Q7Likely

A bike shop sells helmets and also runs a campaign persuading children to wear them. Why are "ideas" included as a kind of product, and who are the primary and secondary target markets in the Bike Cochrane Society example?

Q8Likely

Distinguish a market from a target market, using Lamborghini as an example.

Q9Very likely

Match each description to an orientation (product, sales, market, value-based). (a) "Our engineers build the best product; a good product sells itself." (b) "Supply now exceeds demand, so our job is to sell as many units as possible." (c) "We survey customers first and then design what they want." (d) "We start with what customers want and aim to give more value than competitors while caring about people, profits and the planet."

Q10Very likely

A retailer researches what shoppers want before choosing its merchandise, but it does not try to beat its rivals on value or on social responsibility. Which orientation is this? (A) Product (B) Sales (C) Market (D) Value-based

Q11Very likely

What is the triple bottom line? Give an example of each part.

Q12Very likely

Define value and value-based marketing. Why might customers pay a premium for Apple products?

Q13Very likely

What must firms do to become value driven? (A) Share information, balance benefits with costs, and build customer relationships (B) Cut prices, increase advertising and expand distribution (C) Focus only on product quality (D) Reduce costs and ignore competitors

Q14Very likely

Explain the four activities that make a firm value driven and give one example for each.

Q15Likely

What is customer lifetime value, and what is a relational orientation?

Q16Likely

Keurig sells a home brewer, supplies coffee stations to offices, and its pods are resold on online listing sites. Label each as B2C, B2B or C2C.

Q17Very likely

Which of the following is NOT part of a supply chain? (A) A raw material supplier (B) A manufacturer (C) A retailer (D) A customer service representative

Q18Likely

Give four reasons marketing is important to the firm and to society.

Q19Possible

What is a marketing intermediary, and what is an entrepreneur?

Q20Possible

Starbucks introduced strawless lids and paper or compostable straws, yet many consumers are still unhappy about single-use plastic. What does this show about marketing and ethics?

Chapter 2: Developing Marketing Strategies and a Marketing Plan (22 questions)

Q1Very likely

What does a marketing strategy identify?

Q2Very likely

A firm can persistently do something better than its competitors in a way that is not easily copied and can be maintained over a long period. This is a ____. (A) target market (B) mission statement (C) sustainable competitive advantage (D) marketing metric

Q3Very likely

Name the four macro strategies for building customer value and match each to an example: Disney, Amazon, Bubly, McDonald's.

Q4Very likely

Customer excellence involves ____. (A) building value-based strategies to retain loyal customers and provide excellent service (B) having the lowest prices (C) opening stores near competitors (D) high expense and exclusivity

Q5Likely

Product excellence means a product is expensive and high-end. True or false? Explain.

Q6Possible

Why do strong firms combine several sources of advantage, and what is the WestJet example?

Q7Very likely

What is a marketing plan, what are its three phases and what are its five steps?

Q8Very likely

In the five-step marketing plan, "evaluate performance using marketing metrics" belongs to which phase? (A) Planning (B) Implementation (C) Control (D) Segmentation

Q9Likely

What is a mission statement, and what questions does it answer?

Q10Very likely

A new vegan café near campus lists four facts. Label each as a strength, weakness, opportunity or threat. (a) The chef has ten years of award-winning experience. (b) The café has no brand recognition yet. (c) The city plans a tax on single-use cups. (d) Students increasingly want plant-based food.

Q11Very likely

Which item is an external factor in a SWOT analysis? (A) A strong brand (B) Limited distribution (C) A new competitor entering the market (D) A loyal customer base

Q12Very likely

A market segment is ____. (A) a group of consumers who respond similarly to a firm's marketing efforts (B) a group of competitors (C) all consumers in the world (D) a group of suppliers

Q13Likely

Which element of the marketing mix is the only one that generates revenue? Why does that matter?

Q14Likely

The key in place is to provide consumers with ____. (A) the cheapest products (B) the merchandise they want at the time they want it (C) the most promotions (D) exclusive products

Q15Likely

Define a marketing metric, and explain why managers should be judged only on outcomes they can control.

Q16Very likely

Describe the BCG matrix: its two axes and its four categories.

Q17Very likely

A product with high relative market share in a low-growth market that generates more cash than it uses is a ____. (A) star (B) question mark (C) dog (D) cash cow

Q18Very likely

A firm has a new product in a fast-growing market but it has only a small share, and it is unsure whether more investment will pay off. In which BCG category is it, and what are its options?

Q19Very likely

Name the four growth strategies in the product-market matrix and say which is the riskiest.

Q20Very likely

Classify each Marvel example: (a) releasing films globally and finding that Endgame earned about half its revenue outside North America, (b) releasing serialized Disney+ shows for existing fans, (c) producing more films with familiar characters and encouraging fans to watch more often.

Q21Very likely

Diversification means introducing ____. (A) a new product or service to a market segment that is currently not served (B) the existing product to current customers (C) a price cut (D) more advertising

Q22Very likely

Which of the following is NOT a growth strategy? (A) Market penetration (B) Diversification (C) Product development (D) Sequential planning

Chapter 3: Analyzing the Marketing Environment (20 questions)

Q1Likely

Describe the framework for analyzing the marketing environment (Exhibit 3.1).

Q2Very likely

Which is NOT part of a firm's immediate (micro) environment? (A) Company capabilities (B) The company's stockholders (C) Competition (D) Corporate partners

Q3Likely

What is a core competency, and how did Apple use its own?

Q4Possible

What is competitive intelligence, and what questions does it help a firm answer?

Q5Possible

Why do firms form corporate partnerships? Give the Walmart example.

Q6Very likely

Write out what CDSTEP stands for.

Q7Very likely

Name the CDSTEP element for each change. (a) The Bank of Canada raises interest rates and the dollar weakens. (b) A new law requires proof for green claims on packaging. (c) A grocery chain adds chatbots and delivery drones. (d) A cohort of baby boomers retires. (e) Curry-flavoured chips sell in Vancouver but not Saskatoon.

Q8Likely

Define culture and distinguish country culture from regional subcultures.

Q9Very likely

Typical demographic variables include ____. (A) personality, lifestyle, attitudes (B) age, gender, race (C) motives and perceptions (D) benefits sought

Q10Very likely

People of the same generation with similar purchase behaviours because of shared experiences are a ____. (A) reference group (B) generational cohort (C) subculture (D) market segment

Q11Possible

What do the slides say about the Canadian middle class?

Q12Possible

Give two facts on the slides about ethnicity and Canada's population, and one brand response.

Q13Likely

Women head over 20% of Canadian households and make a majority of household purchasing decisions. What should marketers do about gender?

Q14Very likely

Exaggerated or false environmental claims are called ____. (A) greenwashing (B) competitive intelligence (C) core competency (D) localization

Q15Likely

Name the four social and natural trends covered in the slides.

Q16Very likely

A robotic vacuum that collects and shares data with other connected devices is an example of ____. (A) the Internet of Things (B) greenwashing (C) a generational cohort (D) data mining

Q17Very likely

Define inflation, an exchange rate, an interest rate and a recession, and say how one of them could affect a Canadian retailer.

Q18Likely

Give three examples of Canadian laws in the political and legal environment and explain how regulation affects marketers.

Q19Possible

How does AI change marketing, and what are two examples from the slides?

Q20Very likely

Short answer: Choose a company you know and give one environmental trend for each of the six CDSTEP elements, saying whether each is an opportunity or a threat.

Chapter 4: Consumer Behaviour (26 questions)

Q1Very likely

List the five steps of the consumer decision process in order.

Q2Very likely

After seeing a friend's new phone, Maya realizes hers is outdated. Which decision step has begun? (A) Information search (B) Need recognition (C) Alternative evaluation (D) Purchase decision

Q3Very likely

Distinguish functional needs from psychological needs and give an example of each.

Q4Very likely

What is the difference between internal and external information search?

Q5Very likely

Which is NOT one of the factors affecting consumers' search processes? (A) Perceived benefits versus perceived costs of search (B) Locus of control (C) Actual or perceived risk (D) The kind of search

Q6Very likely

Name the five types of perceived risk and match each to an example. (a) Will the laptop crash? (b) Will it cost me too much to run? (c) Will my friends think it looks cheap? (d) Could the product physically hurt me? (e) Will it make me feel I chose the wrong image?

Q7Possible

Why is a gift for a future mother-in-law higher in psychological risk than an office grab-bag gift?

Q8Very likely

The brands a consumer can readily recall from memory form the ____ set. (A) universal (B) retrieval (C) evoked (D) determinant

Q9Likely

What are evaluative criteria, and how do they differ from determinant attributes?

Q10Very likely

A buyer is choosing a laptop. The importance weights are battery 0.4, price 0.3, weight 0.2 and screen 0.1. Ratings from 1 to 10 (a higher number is better, and a high price rating means a good price) are: Laptop X: 9, 5, 7, 8. Laptop Y: 7, 9, 6, 7. Laptop Z: 6, 8, 9, 9. (a) Which laptop wins under a compensatory rule? (b) Which wins under a non-compensatory rule based only on price?

Q11Very likely

Using the course example, the weights are mileage 0.4, style 0.1, price 0.3 and accessories 0.2. Ratings: Toyota 10, 8, 6, 8. Honda 8, 9, 8, 3. Nissan 6, 8, 10, 5. Which car does a compensatory rule choose, and which does a rule that rejects any car with a poor price rating choose?

Q12Very likely

A consumer chooses a restaurant using weights taste 0.5, price 0.2 and distance 0.3. Ratings: Thai 9, 6, 5. Pizza 7, 8, 9. Sushi 10, 3, 4. Which does a compensatory rule choose?

Q13Likely

What are decision heuristics? Name three and give an example of one.

Q14Possible

What is a conversion rate, and what can retailers do about abandoned carts?

Q15Very likely

A buyer feels uneasy after an expensive purchase. This is ____. (A) selective retention (B) postpurchase cognitive dissonance (C) an evoked set (D) impulse buying

Q16Very likely

Which is NOT a step marketers take to ensure postpurchase satisfaction? (A) Build realistic expectations and deliver on them (B) Build unrealistic expectations (C) Demonstrate correct product use and stand behind the product with guarantees (D) Encourage customer feedback and periodically thank customers

Q17Likely

What is undesirable consumer behaviour after a purchase, and how can a firm limit the damage?

Q18Very likely

Name the three groups of factors that influence buying decisions and list the elements of each.

Q19Very likely

Name the five levels of Maslow's hierarchy from the bottom up and give an example of a product for each.

Q20Very likely

Which is NOT a component of an attitude? (A) Cognitive (B) Affective (C) Behavioural (D) Situational

Q21Very likely

Name the four processes of selective perception and say what perception is.

Q22Likely

What is a reference group, and in what three ways does it influence consumers?

Q23Very likely

Priya usually shops at discount stores, but for her best friend's birthday she buys from Tiffany & Co. after the elegant displays make the pieces feel luxurious and a sale ends today. Which factors does this illustrate?

Q24Very likely

A consumer buys the same coffee at Tim Hortons every morning with almost no thought. This is ____. (A) extended problem solving (B) limited problem solving (C) impulse buying (D) habitual decision making

Q25Very likely

Explain how involvement affects the buying decision, and give an example of each of the four decision types.

Q26Very likely

Short answer: Describe how a student would move through the five steps of the consumer decision process when buying a laptop. Mention one factor from each of the psychological, social and situational groups.

Chapter 6: Segmentation, Targeting and Positioning (24 questions)

Q1Very likely

List the five steps of the STP process.

Q2Very likely

What is the goal of segmentation, and why do firms often combine several bases?

Q3Very likely

Name the four segmentation bases and say what each groups customers by.

Q4Very likely

Dividing consumers by lifestyle, values and self-concept is ____ segmentation. (A) geographic (B) demographic (C) psychographic (D) behavioural

Q5Very likely

Classify each as geographic, demographic, psychographic or behavioural segmentation. (a) A pharmacy sells lip balm to people aged 18 to 24 (b) A ski brand targets people who like outdoor adventure and see themselves as risk-takers (c) An airline offers extra points to heavy users (d) A snow-tire maker advertises only in provinces with long winters.

Q6Very likely

Geographic segmentation is most useful when ____. (A) consumers' needs vary by region (B) all customers are alike (C) a firm sells online only (D) products are undifferentiated

Q7Very likely

What is geodemographic segmentation, and what tool is widely used for it in Canada?

Q8Possible

Describe the "Urban Digerati" cluster and say what it shows about how marketers use PRIZM.

Q9Possible

Give two examples of behavioural segmentation using benefits sought, usage rate and loyalty.

Q10Very likely

Name the five criteria for evaluating a segment's attractiveness and define each.

Q11Very likely

A segment must "react positively to the firm's offering and accept its value proposition." Which criterion is this? (A) Identifiable (B) Reachable (C) Responsive (D) Substantial

Q12Likely

Match each case to the criterion it fails. (a) The original Hummer buyers were few and then shrank (b) Gen Y is hard to reach through traditional media (c) Gap and Gap Kids appeal to different, distinct groups (this one meets the criterion).

Q13Very likely

Camillo's Lawn Service compares two segments. Homeowners: 75,000 people, adoption 1%, price $100, 12 times a year, profit margin 60%, fixed costs $400,000. Businesses: 1,000 businesses, adoption 20%, price $500, 20 times a year, margin 80%, fixed costs $1,000,000. Which segment is more profitable and by how much?

Q14Very likely

A fitness studio is deciding between two segments. Students: 20,000 people, 4% adoption, $30 per visit, 10 visits a year, 50% margin, $20,000 fixed costs. Professionals: 5,000 people, 10% adoption, $60 per visit, 12 visits a year, 70% margin, $40,000 fixed costs. Which should it pursue?

Q15Possible

For the student segment in the previous question, what adoption rate would the studio need just to break even?

Q16Very likely

Which is NOT one of the three key factors for judging segment profitability? (A) Market growth (B) Market competitiveness (C) Purchase behaviour (D) Market access

Q17Very likely

Name the four targeting strategies and give an example of each.

Q18Very likely

Which product most likely uses an undifferentiated strategy? (A) Sugar (B) A luxury watch (C) A sports car (D) A custom bicycle

Q19Very likely

Condé Nast publishes 26 niche magazines, each with a different offering. Its targeting strategy is ____. (A) undifferentiated (B) differentiated (C) concentrated (D) micromarketing

Q20Likely

Give one advantage and one risk of a concentrated strategy and of micromarketing.

Q21Very likely

Define positioning and name the five positioning strategies.

Q22Very likely

Match each to a positioning strategy. (a) Walmart's everyday low price (b) Audi's Quattro all-wheel drive (c) The Nike swoosh (d) Avis: "We're number two. We try harder" (e) Royal Bank of Canada as a trusted national leader.

Q23Likely

What is a perceptual map, and what are the five steps in building one? What is repositioning?

Q24Very likely

Short answer: A bubble tea chain sells student-priced sets, tailors flavours and playlists to each campus and advertises "the best value in town". Identify its segmentation base, targeting strategy and positioning strategy, and add one criterion it must check.

Chapter 7: Marketing Research (22 questions)

Q1Very likely

List the five steps of the marketing research process in order.

Q2Very likely

Which is NOT correct about why marketing research is valuable? (A) It reduces uncertainty (B) It provides a "marginal" link between the firm and its environment (C) It supplies continuous feedback on customer needs (D) It helps monitor competitors and spot environmental change

Q3Likely

At which research step do data become information, and what rule applies when presenting results?

Q4Very likely

Contrast secondary data and primary data with a definition, source, advantage and disadvantage of each.

Q5Very likely

Which statement about primary data is NOT true? (A) It addresses the specific research needs of the current project (B) It can include surveys (C) It includes focus groups (D) It was collected before the project started

Q6Likely

Give two internal and two external sources of secondary data.

Q7Very likely

Data obtained from readings of UPC codes at checkout counters are ____ data. (A) panel (B) scanner (C) focus group (D) qualitative

Q8Likely

What is data mining, and what are big data?

Q9Very likely

Distinguish qualitative research from quantitative research.

Q10Very likely

Which research is exploratory and helps formulate the research problem? (A) Qualitative (B) Quantitative (C) Experimental (D) Scanner

Q11Very likely

Match each to a qualitative method (observation, social media research, in-depth interview, focus group). (a) A small group discusses a new ad under a trained moderator (b) A researcher watches shoppers with cameras and eye tracking (c) A trained researcher talks one-on-one and probes motives (d) A firm mines online conversations about its brand.

Q12Likely

A key advantage of social media research is ____. (A) a statistically representative sample (B) consumers are rarely shy about giving opinions (C) the ability to probe respondents (D) complete consent from all participants

Q13Very likely

Name the three quantitative methods, and distinguish structured from unstructured survey questions.

Q14Very likely

The typical response rate for online surveys is ____. (A) 1 to 2% (B) 10 to 15% (C) 30 to 35% (D) 40 to 45%

Q15Very likely

Identify the problem in each question and suggest a fix. (a) "Do you think the mayor or the premier would make a better prime minister?" (b) "Volvo is the safest car on the road, right?" (c) "Fast food is responsible for adult obesity: agree or disagree." (d) "How much money did you spend on groceries last month?"

Q16Very likely

"Since caffeine is a stimulant, should children be allowed to drink Coca-Cola in school?" What type of problem is this?

Q17Very likely

Which type of analytics recommends optimal actions? (A) Descriptive (B) Predictive (C) Prescriptive (D) Active

Q18Likely

What is marketing analytics, and how did Tesco use it?

Q19Likely

Describe two ethical issues in using customer information, using the Roomba example.

Q20Possible

What did Frito-Lay learn from neuromarketing, and what did it change?

Q21Possible

What do reliable and valid mean in research?

Q22Very likely

Short answer: A campus coffee shop wants to know whether to add a plant-based menu. Apply the five steps of the research process.

Chapter 8: Developing New Products (26 questions)

Q1Very likely

Give four reasons firms create new products.

Q2Likely

Expanding into several categories so that poor performers are offset by others is called ____. (A) risk diversification (B) reverse engineering (C) licensing (D) test marketing

Q3Likely

What is a pioneer and what is first-mover advantage? Why do some pioneers fail, and what is a disruptive innovation?

Q4Likely

About what percentage of new consumer goods fail, and what are three reasons?

Q5Very likely

What does diffusion of innovation help marketers understand? (A) How quickly a firm can lower prices (B) The rate at which consumers are likely to adopt a new product (C) How many products a firm can launch (D) Why pioneers always succeed

Q6Very likely

Name the five adopter categories in order and give each one's share of the market.

Q7Very likely

Match each smartphone buyer to an adopter category. (a) Lines up outside the store to be first (b) Waits a week or two and reads reviews, and influences others (c) Waits until sure it works (d) Buys after most friends have one (e) Will not buy until something newer comes along.

Q8Very likely

A new phone is expected to reach 2,000,000 potential buyers. How many are expected in each adopter group, and how many have bought by the end of the early majority?

Q9Very likely

Which group is second to adopt and tends to be social leaders? (A) Innovators (B) Early adopters (C) Early majority (D) Pioneers

Q10Very likely

Name the five factors that speed the diffusion of a new product and give an example of each.

Q11Very likely

A new smart water bottle is adopted slowly. Name three diffusion factors that could explain it and suggest a fix for each.

Q12Very likely

How many stages are in the new product development process, and what are they?

Q13Very likely

Name at least six sources of new product ideas and give an example of each.

Q14Very likely

A firm buys the rights to use another research-intensive firm's technology. This is ____. (A) licensing (B) outsourcing (C) reverse innovation (D) reverse engineering

Q15Very likely

Coca-Cola's Shanghai R&D centre created Minute Maid Pulpy, which was later sold in 19 countries. What is this called?

Q16Very likely

Taking apart a competitor's product, analyzing it and creating an improved product that does not infringe patents is ____ engineering.

Q17Very likely

Distinguish concept testing, alpha testing, beta testing and premarket testing.

Q18Very likely

Potential consumers using a prototype in a real-use setting is ____ testing. (A) concept (B) alpha (C) beta (D) premarket

Q19Likely

What is test marketing, and when is it a poor choice?

Q20Likely

Which of these is NOT a consideration in product development? (A) Engineering (B) Manufacturing (C) Marketing (D) Distribution

Q21Very likely

Complete the table: for each product life cycle stage give sales, profits, typical consumers and competitors.

Q22Very likely

Name the life cycle stage in each case. (a) A start-up launches a new product with high costs and low sales, and only innovators buy (b) The market becomes more segmented, competitors increase and profits rise (c) Sales peak and firms defend market share (d) A firm chooses between a niche and exiting.

Q23Very likely

Name seven strategies to extend a product's life cycle in maturity and give an example of each.

Q24Likely

Give three caveats about the product life cycle.

Q25Likely

In the software and music industries, new product efforts tend to come from internal ____ and ____. Each product or service has its own ____ life cycle curve shape. Fill in the blanks.

Q26Very likely

Short answer: A start-up has an idea for a reusable, insulated lunch bag with a built-in cooling pack. Take it through the six new product development stages, naming the specific tests you would use, then say which life cycle stage it will be in at launch and what marketing mix emphasis that implies.

Integrative short-answer questions (10 questions)

These mix chapters the way a short-answer question on a 1-hour paper might. Each gives a suggested mark value (an estimate of how a marker might split the marks) and a model answer you could write in 5 to 8 minutes. Write the answer yourself first.

S1Very likely6 marks

Explain the difference between a product orientation and a value-based orientation. Use the triple bottom line and one company example.

S2Very likely8 marks

A small Canadian bakery plans to expand. (a) Give one internal and one external factor for each of the four SWOT quadrants. (b) Use the Ansoff growth matrix to name one strategy it could pursue and say why.

S3Very likely6 marks

A Canadian outdoor apparel brand sells online and in stores. Identify three macroenvironment (CDSTEP) factors that matter to it and one response to each.

S4Very likely6 marks

A student pays $5.50 for a coffee at a premium chain every morning although a cheaper option is next door. Use the consumer behaviour concepts to explain this.

S5Very likely10 marks

A company launches a plant-based protein bar. Gym-goers: 30,000 people, 8% adoption, $3 per bar, 50 bars a year, 40% margin, $30,000 fixed costs. Office workers: 100,000 people, 2% adoption, $3 per bar, 20 bars a year, 40% margin, $30,000 fixed costs. (a) Calculate the profit of each segment. (b) Which segment should it target, which targeting strategy is that, and what positioning would you recommend?

S6Very likely8 marks

An online retailer finds that many shoppers abandon their carts. Describe the five steps of a research project to find out why, naming one secondary and one primary data source, and fix this survey question: "Don't you agree that our slow checkout is the reason you leave?"

S7Very likely8 marks

Five years after launch, a smart speaker's sales have peaked and many competing models exist. (a) Which life cycle stage is this? (b) Describe two ways the firm could extend the life cycle. (c) Which adopter group is buying now and what does this imply?

S8Very likely8 marks

A beverage company has four products. A is a market leader in a slow-growing market. B is a new product in a fast-growing market with a small share. C has a small share in a shrinking market. D has a large share in a fast-growing market. (a) Place each in the BCG matrix and say what to do. (b) The company is thinking of selling its existing drinks in a new country. Which Ansoff strategy is this?

S9Likely6 marks

Discuss two ethical issues from the course that marketers face when they collect and use customer data and make environmental claims. Give a firm's example for each.

S10Very likely8 marks

Distinguish each pair with a short definition: (a) the evoked set and the retrieval set, (b) differentiated and concentrated targeting, (c) alpha and beta testing, (d) secondary and primary data.

Timed 1-hour mock exam (50 marks)

This paper is built to the format the syllabus describes (multiple choice and short answer, Chapters 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7 and 8, one hour). The real paper's length and mark split are unknown, so this one is an estimate: 32 multiple-choice questions at 1 mark each (about 32 minutes), then 3 short-answer questions at 6 marks each (about 24 minutes, 8 minutes each), and 4 minutes to check your work. Use a timer, a calculator and a blank page, and no notes. The answer key is in the next section; do not look at it until the hour is up.

Section A: Multiple choice (32 marks)

1. Which is NOT one of the four activities that make a firm value driven? (A) Raising prices to signal quality (B) Sharing information across the organization (C) Building customer relationships (D) Connecting with customers through digital, social and mobile media

2. In the marketing mix, price is best described as ____. (A) the amount the seller spends to produce the item (B) everything the buyer gives up in exchange for the product (C) the discount offered at the checkout (D) the seller's profit

3. A safety group persuades children to wear bicycle helmets. What is being marketed? (A) A good (B) A place (C) An idea (D) An organization

4. Keurig sells an office coffee station to a company. This is a ____ setting. (A) B2C (B) C2C (C) C2B (D) B2B

5. Which is the best example of operational excellence? (A) Disney's MagicBand (B) McDonald's dense network of restaurants (C) Bubly's playful brand (D) Amazon's advanced logistics and fast, reliable delivery

6. A mission statement is ____. (A) a broad description of a firm's objectives and the scope of its activities (B) a detailed list of promotion tactics (C) a projected income statement (D) an analysis of competitors' strengths

7. A new law will ban the packaging material that a firm uses for its main product. In a SWOT analysis this is a ____. (A) strength (B) threat (C) opportunity (D) weakness

8. A product with low relative market share in a low-growth market is a ____. (A) star (B) cash cow (C) dog (D) question mark

9. A bank offers its existing chequing account to newcomers to Canada, a segment it has not served before. Which growth strategy is this? (A) Market development (B) Market penetration (C) Product development (D) Diversification

10. Which is NOT part of a firm's immediate (micro) environment? (A) Corporate partners (B) The political and legal environment (C) Competition (D) Company capabilities

11. Consumers increasingly want recycled packaging, and 69% say they would pay a premium for products that benefit the environment. This is a ____ trend. (A) technological (B) economic (C) social and natural (D) political and legal

12. Rising inflation and a rising overnight interest rate are changes in which CDSTEP element? (A) Culture (B) Demographics (C) Technological advances (D) Economic situation

13. People born between 1946 and 1964 are called ____. (A) baby boomers (B) Gen X (C) Gen Y (D) Gen Z

14. After buying an expensive laptop, Sam keeps wondering whether he made the right choice. What should the retailer do to reduce this feeling? (A) Raise the price (B) Follow up with a guarantee and reassurance (C) Stop all contact with him (D) Promise more than the product can deliver

15. A consumer believes a brand is high quality, feels positive about it, and buys it regularly. Which components of attitude are shown, in that order? (A) Affective, cognitive, behavioural (B) Behavioural, cognitive, affective (C) Cognitive, affective, behavioural (D) Cognitive, behavioural, affective

16. Marta hesitates over a designer jacket because friends may think she is showing off. This is ____ risk. (A) performance (B) financial (C) physiological (D) social

17. Which statement about a compensatory decision rule is true? (A) Good ratings on one attribute can offset poor ratings on another (B) An alternative is rejected if it fails on any single attribute (C) Only price is considered (D) It is used only for impulse purchases

18. A shopper remembers only the positive things she heard about a brand and forgets the negative. This is selective ____. (A) exposure (B) retention (C) comprehension (D) attention

19. A cereal brand makes separate products for children, athletes and seniors, each with its own advertising. Its targeting strategy is ____. (A) undifferentiated (B) concentrated (C) differentiated (D) micromarketing

20. A segment is large and profitable, but the firm has no practical way to communicate with or distribute to it. Which criterion fails? (A) Identifiable (B) Responsive (C) Substantial (D) Reachable

21. A segment has 20,000 people, 5% adoption, a $50 price bought 4 times a year, a 40% margin and $20,000 of fixed costs. What is the segment's profit? (A) $60,000 (B) $80,000 (C) $100,000 (D) $20,000

22. "Our burgers have 20% less fat than the leading brand" positions the product on ____. (A) value (B) competition (C) market leadership (D) benefits and symbolism

23. PRIZM, from Environics Analytics, is a tool for ____. (A) behavioural segmentation (B) micromarketing (C) geodemographic segmentation (D) perceptual mapping

24. At which step of the research process do raw data become information? (A) Define the problem (B) Design the plan (C) Collect data (D) Analyze data and develop insights

25. A researcher uses cameras to watch how shoppers move through a store. This method is ____. (A) observation (B) an experiment (C) a survey (D) an in-depth interview

26. Which statement about secondary data is true? (A) They are always collected for the current project (B) They are free or inexpensive and quick, but may be outdated (C) They are always more accurate than primary data (D) They include focus groups

27. A questionnaire asks, "How satisfied are you with our friendly staff and low prices?" This question is ____. (A) leading (B) sensitive (C) double-barreled (D) unstructured

28. The late majority make up about ____ of the market. (A) 2.5% (B) 13.5% (C) 16% (D) 34%

29. A new product in the introduction stage of its life cycle is most likely to have ____. (A) initial losses and low sales (B) many competitors (C) high sales and profits (D) price wars

30. A firm has employees test a working prototype to see whether it performs to design. This is ____ testing. (A) concept (B) alpha (C) beta (D) market

31. Rollerblade marketed its skates to young children and older adults after teen sales slowed. Which life cycle strategy is this? (A) Develop new uses (B) Modify the product (C) Find new users (D) Tweak the marketing strategy

32. Blendtec's "Will It Blend?" videos speed adoption mainly through which diffusion factor? (A) Compatibility (B) Complexity (C) Relative advantage (D) Observability

Section B: Short answer (18 marks; 6 marks each)

33. A new budget airline plans to enter the Canadian market. (a) Name two segmentation bases it could use and describe one segment it might target. (b) State its targeting strategy and one positioning strategy, and say why. (c) Name two criteria it must check before committing to the segment. (6 marks)

34. A university student is buying a first car. Describe the five steps of the consumer decision process as they apply to this purchase, giving one specific point for each step, and name the type of buying decision involved. (6 marks)

35. A company launches an innovative smart home camera. (a) List the six stages of new product development in order, naming one test used in the third and fourth stages. (b) In which life cycle stage will the product be at launch, and which adopter group will buy first? (c) Name one diffusion factor that would speed adoption of the camera, and one that could slow it. (6 marks)

Mock exam answer key and marking guide

Answer key Open it only after you have finished the mock under timed conditions

Mark your paper once the hour is up. For each multiple-choice miss, note the chapter in the third column, because that is your study list for the next two days. The correct letters are spread evenly (eight each of A, B, C and D), so a pattern of guesses will not help.

Section A: Multiple choice answers (1 mark each)

# Answer Chapter How to get it and why the others fail
1 A 1 The four value-driven activities are share information, balance benefits with costs, build customer relationships, and connect through digital, social and mobile media. Raising prices to signal quality is not one of them.
2 B 1 Price is everything the buyer gives up (money, time, energy). Production cost and profit are the seller's side.
3 C 1 Offerings include goods, services and ideas. Helmet use is a behaviour change, so it is an idea (the Bike Cochrane Society example).
4 D 1 Business selling to business is B2B. B2C is business to consumer and C2C is consumer to consumer.
5 D 2 Operational excellence is efficient operations and supply chain, which is Amazon. MagicBand is customer excellence, Bubly is product excellence and McDonald's network is locational excellence.
6 A 2 A mission statement is a broad description of objectives and scope, set at the top before the strategy.
7 B 2 A new law is external and negative (political and legal change), so it is a threat. Strengths and weaknesses are internal.
8 C 2 Low share and low growth is a dog. A cash cow has high share and low growth, and a question mark has low share and high growth.
9 A 2 Current product to a new market segment is market development. Penetration would be more sales to current customers.
10 B 3 The immediate environment is company capabilities, competition and corporate partners. The political and legal environment is a CDSTEP macro factor.
11 C 3 Greener consumers and willingness to pay for environmental benefit are social and natural trends.
12 D 3 Inflation and interest rates are economic factors, along with exchange rates and recession.
13 A 3 Baby boomers were born from 1946 to 1964; Gen X from 1965 to 1981.
14 B 4 The feeling is postpurchase cognitive dissonance, reduced by follow-up, guarantees and reassurance. The other options raise or ignore the problem.
15 C 4 Belief is cognitive, feeling is affective, and buying is behavioural, in that order.
16 D 4 Fear of what others will think is social risk.
17 A 4 In a compensatory rule strengths offset weaknesses. B describes a non-compensatory rule.
18 B 4 Remembering only the favourable information is selective retention. Exposure is what you see, attention is what you notice, comprehension is how you interpret it.
19 C 6 Several segments with different offerings and mixes is differentiated. Concentrated would be one segment only.
20 D 6 If the firm cannot communicate with or distribute to the segment, it is not reachable.
21 A 6 20,000 × 0.05 = 1,000 customers; $50 × 4 = $200; revenue $200,000; × 0.40 = $80,000; − $20,000 = $60,000. ($80,000 is gross profit before fixed costs.)
22 B 6 Comparing against the leading brand is positioning on competition.
23 C 6 PRIZM combines geography, demographics and lifestyle into clusters, which is geodemographic segmentation.
24 D 7 Step 4 (analyze data and develop insights) turns data into information.
25 A 7 Watching behaviour directly, including with cameras and sensors, is observation.
26 B 7 Secondary data are cheap and fast but may be outdated or not specific. A, C and D describe primary data or are false.
27 C 7 Two issues (staff and prices) in one question is double-barreled.
28 D 8 The early majority and late majority are each 34%.
29 A 8 Introduction has high start-up costs, low sales and initial losses, and one or few competitors.
30 B 8 Testing inside the firm is alpha testing; beta testing uses real consumers in real use.
31 C 8 Moving from teens to young children and older adults is finding new users.
32 D 8 Visible benefits and demonstrations increase observability.

Scoring Section A: 29 to 32 means you are ready; 25 to 28 means review the chapters of your misses; below 25 means redo the chapter sections of this guide for the chapters you missed.

Section B: Short-answer marking guide

33. Budget airline (6 marks). How to answer: do (a), (b) and (c) in order, label each, and use the facts you invent as evidence.

Answer: (a) Two bases (2 marks): demographic (for example age 18 to 35 and student status) and geographic (departure cities such as Toronto, Montreal and Halifax), or behavioural (benefits sought: lowest fare). Example segment: price-sensitive leisure travellers aged 18 to 35 flying between Ontario and the Maritimes. (b) Targeting and positioning (2 marks): a concentrated (niche) strategy because it serves one segment, or differentiated if it adds a second segment; position on value (low fares relative to a basic but reliable service), since this segment seeks low price. (c) Criteria (2 marks): any two of identifiable, reachable (it can advertise on social media and campus channels), responsive (will the segment accept the no-frills value proposition?), substantial (enough travellers on the route) and profitable (customers × purchase behaviour × margin must exceed fixed costs). Give a reason for each criterion.

34. First car (6 marks). How to answer: one mark for each step with a specific point and one mark for the buying-decision type.

Answer: Need recognition: the old bike is no longer practical for a co-op placement, a gap between the current and desired state (1). Information search: internal (past experience in the family car) and external (reviews, friends, dealers), with a long search because the risk is high, especially financial and performance risk (1). Alternative evaluation: from an evoked set of three models, compare criteria such as price, fuel economy and safety, using a compensatory rule (1). Purchase decision: financing, availability and the dealer experience can still stop the sale (1). Postpurchase: satisfaction if expectations were realistic, or cognitive dissonance after a big expense, reduced with a warranty and follow-up (1). The type is extended problem solving, because the purchase is expensive, risky and infrequent (1).

35. Smart home camera (6 marks). How to answer: list the stages exactly, then give the stage, adopter group and factors.

Answer: (a) Idea generation, concept testing, product development (alpha and beta tests), market testing (premarket testing or test marketing), product launch, evaluation of results (3 marks; 1 for the correct six in order, 1 for a test in stage 3, 1 for a test in stage 4). (b) Introduction stage, with initial losses and one or few competitors; innovators buy first (1.5 marks). (c) A factor that speeds adoption: observability (the camera's benefits are visible to neighbours), trialability (in-store trial) or relative advantage over ordinary cameras; a factor that slows it: complexity (difficult setup) or low compatibility with consumers' privacy values (1.5 marks).

Score yourself

Add Section A (out of 32) and Section B (out of 18). Roughly, 43 or more out of 50 is excellent, 35 to 42 is solid, and below 35 means go back to the chapter sections for the questions you missed. Shortfalls in Section B are usually from skipping the application to the case, so compare your answers against the specific facts you used.

Rapid-fire review: 30 questions for the last night

These are one-line recall checks. Cover the right-hand column, say the answer out loud, then check. If you miss one, go back to the chapter section above and redo its question. The chapter in brackets tells you where to look.

# Question Answer
1 Name the four orientations of marketing in historical order. (Ch 1) Product, sales, market, value-based. Product: a good product sells itself. Sales: sell as much as possible. Market: start with what consumers want and need. Value-based (today): market orientation plus giving more value than competitors.
2 What is the triple bottom line? (Ch 1) People (consumer needs and wants), Profits (long-term profitable relationships), Planet (social and environmental responsibility).
3 Give the value verb for each of the 4 Ps. (Ch 1) Product creates value, Price transacts value, Place delivers value, Promotion communicates value. Price is the only P that generates revenue; the other three are costs.
4 What three things does a marketing strategy identify? (Ch 2) The target market(s), the related marketing mix (4 Ps), and the bases for a sustainable competitive advantage.
5 Name the four macro strategies for building customer value. (Ch 2) Customer excellence, operational excellence, product excellence, locational excellence. Strongest when they overlap and reinforce each other; one advantage is rarely enough.
6 List the five steps of the marketing planning process and say which phase each belongs to. (Ch 2) 1 Define mission and objectives (planning). 2 Situation analysis, SWOT (planning). 3 Identify and evaluate opportunities with STP (implementation). 4 Implement the marketing mix and allocate resources (implementation). 5 Evaluate performance with marketing metrics (control).
7 Which SWOT letters are internal and which are external? (Ch 2) Strengths and Weaknesses are internal (within the firm's control). Opportunities and Threats are external (outside its control). Strengths and Opportunities are positive; Weaknesses and Threats are negative.
8 Describe the four BCG boxes and the two axes. (Ch 2) Axes: relative market share (horizontal) and market growth rate (vertical). Star: high growth, high share. Cash cow: low growth, high share. Question mark: high growth, low share. Dog: low growth, low share.
9 Describe the four Ansoff growth strategies. (Ch 2) Market penetration: current product, current market. Market development: current product, new market. Product development: new product, current market. Diversification: new product, new market (the riskiest). "Sequential planning" is not one of them.
10 What does CDSTEP stand for? (Ch 3) Culture, Demographics, Social and natural trends, Technological advances, Economic situation, Political and legal environment. These make up the macroenvironment; the immediate environment is company capabilities, competition and corporate partners.
11 What is a generational cohort, and when were Baby Boomers and Gen X born? (Ch 3) A group of people of the same generation with similar purchase behaviour because of shared experiences and life stage. Baby Boomers 1946 to 1964; Gen X 1965 to 1981.
12 List the five steps of the consumer buying decision process. (Ch 4) Need recognition, information search, evaluation of alternatives, purchase decision, postpurchase behaviour. Postpurchase dissonance is buyer's remorse after a costly or risky purchase; reduce it with guarantees, follow-up and reassurance.
13 Name the five types of perceived risk. (Ch 4) Performance, financial, social, physiological (safety), psychological. Search effort rises with importance, cost and perceived risk.
14 Compare compensatory and non-compensatory decision rules. (Ch 4) Compensatory: trade one attribute off against another; weighted score is the sum of importance weight times rating, so good attributes offset bad ones (Toyota 8.2 beat Honda 7.1 and Nissan 7.2). Non-compensatory: choose on a subset of attributes regardless of the rest (a price cutoff picks the Nissan).
15 Name the three groups of factors that influence buying decisions and the five levels of Maslow's hierarchy. (Ch 4) Psychological (motives, attitudes, perception, learning, lifestyle), social (family, reference groups, culture), situational (purchase situation, shopping situation, temporal state). Maslow from the bottom: physiological, safety, love or social, esteem, self-actualization.
16 Name the four types of buying decision and which takes the least effort. (Ch 4) Extended problem solving, limited problem solving, impulse buying, habitual decision making. Habitual takes the least time and effort. High involvement leads to extended problem solving.
17 List the five steps of STP. (Ch 6) Set the overall strategy, choose segmentation bases, evaluate segment attractiveness, select a target market (targeting strategy), then position the brand in customers' minds.
18 Name the four segmentation bases and the Canadian geodemographic tool. (Ch 6) Geographic, demographic, psychographic, behavioural. The tool is PRIZM (Environics Analytics), which groups Canadians into 67 lifestyle clusters. Demographic is the most common base because the data are easy to get.
19 List the five criteria for an attractive segment. (Ch 6) Identifiable, reachable, responsive, substantial, profitable. A segment must meet all five.
20 What is the segment profit formula, and what did Camillo's Lawn Service show? (Ch 6) Segment profit = segment size x adoption % x purchase price x frequency x profit margin, minus fixed costs. Homeowners: $140,000. Businesses: $600,000. Choose the strongest return, not the biggest market.
21 Name the four targeting strategies with one example each. (Ch 6) Undifferentiated (one offer for everyone; sugar). Differentiated (a different mix for each segment; Condé Nast magazines). Concentrated or niche (one segment; Cora's). Micromarketing (tailored to individuals; personalized M&M's).
22 Name the five positioning strategies. Which one is based on the price-to-quality relationship? (Ch 6) Value, product attributes, benefits and symbolism, competition, market leadership. Value is the price-to-quality one (Walmart's everyday low price).
23 List the five steps of the marketing research process. (Ch 7) Define the problem and objectives, design the research plan, collect data, analyze data and develop insights (data become information), present the action plan (no technical jargon).
24 Contrast secondary and primary data, and give the survey response rates. (Ch 7) Secondary data were collected earlier for another purpose (faster and cheaper; check how they were collected; syndicated data from firms such as Nielsen). Primary data are collected new for the project: qualitative (observation, social media, in-depth interviews, focus groups) or quantitative (surveys). Response rates: online 30 to 35%, phone 10 to 15%, mail 1 to 2%.
25 Name the four types of marketing analytics. (Ch 7) Descriptive (summarizes past data), predictive (forecasts outcomes), prescriptive (recommends optimal actions), active (AI and Internet-of-Things data for real-time insight).
26 Name two questionnaire mistakes and their fixes. (Ch 7) Double-barreled question (two issues in one question): split it into two. Leading question (steers the answer): use neutral wording and a rating scale. Others: one-sided, implicit assumptions, sensitive, unanswerable, complex.
27 Give the five diffusion-of-innovation groups with their percentages. (Ch 8) Innovators 2.5%, early adopters 13.5%, early majority 34%, late majority 34%, laggards 16%. Innovators plus early adopters are 16%; through the early majority is 50%. Pioneers are firms, innovators are consumers.
28 List the six stages of new product development. (Ch 8) Idea generation, concept testing, product development, market testing, product launch, evaluation of results. Every firm starts with idea generation and ends with evaluation.
29 Describe the four product life cycle stages. (Ch 8) Introduction: one firm, high start-up costs, low sales, initial losses. Growth: the tipping point, more competitors, a more segmented market. Maturity: defend market share, late majority adopts. Decline: target a niche or exit (harvest or divest).
30 List seven strategies to extend the life cycle in maturity. (Ch 8) Develop new uses, modify the product, increase frequency of use, increase the number of users, find new users, reposition the product, tweak the marketing strategy.

Last-night checklist

Say each of these from memory with no notes: the four orientations, the four macro strategies, SWOT, the BCG boxes, the four Ansoff strategies, CDSTEP, the five buying steps, the five risks, the compensatory calculation, the five segment criteria, the profit formula, the four targeting strategies, the five positioning strategies, the five research steps, the response rates, the diffusion percentages, the six development stages, and the four life cycle stages. If you can do all of those, you are ready for the multiple choice. For the short answers, use the structure you practised: name the concept, define it, apply it to the case in one or two sentences, and finish with a conclusion.

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